1800+ Indian Evidence Act MCQs for all State Judiciary Exams
1. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act protects communication
during marriage?
A.Section 122
B.Section 123
C.Section 124
D.Section 125
Answer: Option
A
2.
'B', 'C' and 'D' never saw 'A' writing. But they give their opinion about the handwriting
of 'A'. The opinion of which one is relevant?
A.Of 'B', because 'B' is a merchant in Delhi. 'A' has written many
letters addressed to 'B'
B.Of 'C' because 'C' is a clerk of 'A' 'C's duty was to examineand
file A's correspondence
C.Of 'D' because 'D' is Z's broker to whom Z habitually submitted
the letters purporting to Bwritten by 'A' for the purpose of his advice
D.Of all the above
Answer: Option
D
3.
The privilege to withhold the documents/information under the administrative
law is enacted in which of the following Sections of the Evidence Act?
A.Section 120
B.Section 126
C.Section 123
D.Section 98
Answer: Option
C
4.
Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, permits the use of discovery
evidence, which lays down strictly as to how much of the information contained
in the statement of the accused is made admissible. Which one of the following
information is relevant under this Section?
A.That relates to only the place of occurrence
B.That relates to nature of the object
C.That relates to the past user of the object
D.Information given by the accused, as relates distinctly to the
fact thereby discovered
Answer: Option
D
5. Which
Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals only with civil matters?
A.Section-23
B.Section-27
C.Section-53
D.Section-133
6.
Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act is related to
A.Number of witnesses
B.Accomplice
C.Oral evidence
D.Relevancy of facts
7.
Answer: Option
B
For the admissibility of a dying declaration, it is not necessary
that the statement:
A.Relates to cause of death
B.The person making the statement must be under expectation of
death
C.The person making the statement must be competent
D.The statement must be complete
Answer: Option
B
8.
Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been
inserted by the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act, 1986
A.Section 111A
B.Section 113A
C.Section 113B
D.None of the above
9. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
A.Child witness ⇔ Section 118
B.Dumb witness ⇔ Section 120
C.Hostile witness ⇔ Section 154
D.Expert witness ⇔ Section 45
10.
Answer: Option
B
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A.Dying declaration may be oral or in writing
B.Where there are two or more dying declarations in a case, there
must be similarity of contents between them
C.First Information Report recorded under Section 154 of the Code
of Criminal Procedure 1973, may be admitted as dying declaration
D.Statement of dying declaration cannot be recorded by a police
officer
Answer: Option D
11. Facts under the Evidence Act means:
A.Anything capable of being perceived by the senses only
B.Anything not being capable of being perceived by the senses only
C.Only any mental condition of which any person is conscious
D.Anything capable of being perceived by the senses and any mental
condition of which any person is conscious
Answer: Option D
12.
Indian Evidence Act: Defence of alibi is governed by-
A.Section 9 of the Evidence Act
B.Section 12 of the Evidence Act
C.Section 11 of the Evidence Act
D.Section 6 of the Evidence Act
Answer: Option
C
13.
Section 108 of the Evidence Act provides that when a man has not been heard of
for seven years by those who would . . . . . . . . have heard of him if he had
been alive, the burden of proving that he is alive shifts on the person who
affirms it.
A.Naturally
B.Normally
C.Usually
D.Ordinarily
Answer: Option
A
14.
Rule of estoppel is contained in Section . . . . . . . . of the Evidence Act,
1872.
A.112
B.115
C.118
D.120
Answer: Option
B
15.
Which are the provisions under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that deals with
relevancy of opinion of experts?
A.Sections 49 and 50
B.Sections 23 and 24
C.Sections 45 and 46
D.Sections 81 and 82
Answer: Option
C
16.
The Principle of Promissory Estoppel found its root:
A.As an exception to the doctrine of consideration in the law of
contract
B.As a rule of future consideration in the law of contract
C.As a rule of past consideration in the law of contract
D.None of the above
Answer: Option
A
17.
The plea can succeed only if it is shown that the accused was so far away at
the relevant time that he could not be present at the place where the crime was
committed'. The Supreme Court of India, in this observation, was referring to
the plea of:
A.Innocence
B.Abetment
C.Alibi
D.Self-defence
18.
Answer: Option
C
Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872 provides that evidence may be given of facts in issue and relevant facts?
A.Section 3
B.Section 4
C.Section 5
D.Section 60
19.
Answer: Option
C
Two friends A and B were sleeping in a room which was bolted from
inside. In the morning, A is found murdered. Under which provision of the Evidence
Act, prosecution can claim shifting of burden on B to prove the manner in which
the murder took place:
A.Section 114 of the Evidence Act
B.Section 103 of the Evidence Act
C.Section 106 of the Evidence Act
D.Section 101 of the Evidence Act
Answer: Option
C
20.
Which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is based on the
principle of "Agency"?
A.Section 7
B.Section 8
C.Section 9
D.Section 10
Answer: Option D
21. When a person summoned to produce a document and he produces a
document then
A.He becomes a witness
B.He is cross-examined by both the parties
C.He is cross-examined with the permission of the court
D.He does not become a witness and cannot be cross examined unless
and until he is called as a witness
Answer: Option D
22.
When one fact is declared by the Indian Evidence Act to be conclusive proof of
another, the court, on proof of one fact:
A.Shall not allow evidence to be given for the purpose of
disproving it
B.May allow evidence to be given for the purpose of disproving it
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
23.
Which of the following provisions of Indian Evidence Act permits evidence
recorded in
one case to be considered relevant in a subsequent proceeding?
A.Section 32
B.Section 37
C.Section 38
D.Section 33
24.
Answer: Option
D
Evidence of a witness in a previous proceeding would be admissible
under section 33 of the evidence act only if the adverse party in the first
proceeding had the right and opportunity to cross-examine the witness'. The
statement is . . . . . . . .?
A.True
B.False
C.Partly correct
D.None of these
25.
Answer: Option
A
Statement made in anticipation of death by a person who survives,
to a police officer, would be
A.Admissible under S. 32
B.Admissible under S. 157
C.Inadmissible
D.Admissible under S. 144
Answer: Option
C
26.
Electronics records produced before the court are:
A.Oral evidence
B.Documentary evidence
C.Ordinary evidence
D.Technical evidence
27.
Answer: Option
B
Accused wants to submit a document for consideration under Section
35 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In which of the following cases will the
document become irrelevant
A.It does not deal with a fact in issue
B.It does not deal with a relevant fact
C.It is not an entry made in public or other official book,
register or record
D.It is not an entry made by public servant
28.
Answer: Option
C
Which one of the following has not been mentioned as a ground
under section 24 rendering a confession by an accused person irrelevant
A.Inducement
B.Promise
C.Deceit
D.Threat
29.
Answer: Option
C
Mandatory requirement of Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act is
that . . . . . . . .
A.The accused must be in police custody
B.The accused must be in judicial custody
C.The accused must be on bail
D.The accused must plead guilty first
30.
Answer: Option
A
Indian Evidence Act deals with:
1. Relevancy of evidence
2. Reliability of evidence
3. Admissibility of evidence
Select the correct answer:
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Answer: Option B
31. Former statement of a witness may be proved to corroborate later testimony
as to the same fact, as provided under Section . . . . . . . . of the Indian
Evidence Act.
A.Section 157
B.Section 151
C.Section 156
D.Section 155
Answer: Option
A
32. Section 27 applies to
A.Discovery of some fact which the police had not previously
learnt from other sources and was first derived from the information given by
the accused
B.Discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt
from other sources
C.Discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt
from other sources and the accused has also given information regarding the
same
D.All the above
33.
Answer: Option
A
An evidence given by a dumb witness in an open court is . . . . .
. . .
A.A documentary evidence
B.An oral evidence
C.Inadmissible
D.Deemed to be no evidence
34.
Answer: Option
B
The presumption under Section 41 of Evidence Act is a
A.Presumption of fact
B.Rebuttable presumption of law
C.Presumption of fact and law
D.Irrebuttable presumption of law
35.
Answer: Option
D
According to the Indian Evidence Act, the burden of proof in a
suit or proceeding lies on the person:
A.Who instituted the suit or proceeding
B.Against whom the suit or proceeding is instituted
C.Who would fail if no evidence at all were given on either side
D.Whom the court may call upon
36.
Answer: Option
C
Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, prosecution or Complainant may
A.Not refresh memory of his witness
B.Ask leading question to his own witness with the permission of
the Court
C.Ask leading question to his own witness without the permission
of the Court
D.All 3 options are incorrect
37.
Answer: Option
B
Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals
with the burden of proof as to ownership?
A.Section 100
B.Section 101
C.Section 110
D.Section 105
38.
Answer: Option
C
Admissions by agents are:
A.Always admissible in civil proceedings
B.Admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has the
authority to make admissions
C.Not admissible in criminal proceedings
D.Both B and C
39.
Answer: Option
D
The principle of proving beyond reasonable doubt applies to:
A.Criminal proceedings only
B.Civil proceedings only
C.Evidence Law
D.All the Civil and Criminal proceedings
40.
Answer: Option
A
Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with 'Hostile
witness'?
A.Section 134
B.Section 154
C.Section 155
D.Section 157
Answer: Option B
Which statement is not correct in the light of Section 27 of Indian Evidence
Act, 1872?
A.Person who give information must be an accused of an offence
B.He must be in custody of police
C.A relevant fact must be discovered from the information which is
given by that person
D.None of these
42.
Answer: Option
D
Confidential Communication with whom of the following is protected
under Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.To Magistrate
B.To Police Officer
C.To Legal Advisor
D.To Revenue Officer
43.
Answer: Option
C
Section 13 of Evidence Act
A.Is confined to public rights and does not cover private rights
B.Is not confined to public rights and covers private rights also
C.Is confined to private rights and does not cover public rights
D.Either A or C is correct
44.
Answer: Option
B
In which of the following there is no estoppel
A.On a point of law
B.Against a statute
C.Attestation of a deed
D.All the above
45.
Answer: Option
C
The primary evidence in respect of a document, which is prepared
in many original copies, will be:
A.First original copy
B.All original copies
C.All copies are secondary evidence
D.None of the above
46.
Answer: Option
B
'Proof' is the result of
A.Inquiry
B.Evidence
C.Investigation
D.Statement
47.
Answer: Option
B
Oral evidence of fact invalidating the document is admissible
under
A.Proviso 1 to Section 92 of the Evidence Act
B.Proviso 2 to Section 92 of the Evidence Act
C.Proviso 4 to Section 92 of the Evidence Act
D.Proviso 6 to Section 92 of the Evidence Act
48.
Answer: Option
A
Under which section of the Indian evidence act the conduct of the
accused us relevant?
A.Section-8
B.Section-10
C.Section-11
D.Section-12
49.
Answer: Option
A
Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act
provides for admissibility of secondary evidence?
A.Section 60
B.Section 61
C.Section 63
D.Section 65
50.
Answer: Option
D
In civil cases no admission is not relevant if . . . . . . . .
A.If it is made upon an express condition that evidence of it is
not to be given
B.If it is not clear in terms and intention
C.Court is not satisfied
D.All of the above
Answer: Option A
51.
Pawan Kumar v. State of Haryana, AIR 2001 SC 1324 relates to
A.Presumption as to dowry death
B.Presumption as to legitimacy
C.Presumption as to rape
D.Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman
Answer: Option
D
52. Presumption
as to abetment to commit suicide by a married woman has been given-
A.Under Sec. 114 of the Evidence Act
B.Under Sec. 113-A of the Evidence Act
C.Under Sec. 113-B of the Evidence Act
D.Under Sec. 112 of the Evidence Act
53.
Answer: Option
B
Indian Evidence Act: Extra Judicial confession means a confession
made?
A.Before judicial Magistrate in court
B.Before Doctor
C.Before Friend
D.Both before Doctor and before Friend
Answer: Option
D
54.
High Court of Kerala has recently held that Compact Disc (CD) is admissible in
evidence in family court even without certificate. This can be done under which
section of the Indian Evidence Act.
A.Section 65 B (4)
B.Section 65A
C.Section 65
D.Section 66
55.
Answer: Option
A
No Judge or Magistrate can be compelled to answer any question as
to his own conduct in Court as such Judge or Magistrate except upon the special
order of:
A.High Court
B.Supreme Court
C.Court to which he is subordinate
D.Court having administrative control over him
56.
Answer: Option
C
In cases where a document proved to be thirty years old is
produced from proper custody, which of the following presumptions will the
court make?
A.The court makes an irrebutable presumption that the contents of
the document is true
B.The court shall presume that the person who had custody of the
document is the executor of the document
C.The court may presume that the signature and handwriting is the
signature and handwriting of the person to be and was duly executed and
attested
D.The Court shall not make any presumption as to its validity or
its execution
57.
Answer: Option
C
In a reference made over a disputed matter to a third person, the
declaration so made by that person shall be an evidence against the party
making a reference, by virtue of
A.Section 17 of Evidence Act
B.Section 19 of Evidence Act
C.Section 20 of Evidence Act
D.Section 21 of Evidence Act
58.Dying
declaration under Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is an exception
to the rule of
A.Direct evidence
B.Hearsay
C.Admissions
D.Estoppel
59.
Answer: Option
B
Section 108 of Evidence Act relates to
A.Presumption of death
B.Presumption of life
C.Presumption of legitimacy
D.Presumption of relationship
60.
The facts of which the court must take judicial notice include the
A.Gazetted Holidays observed by the Government of India
B.Rules of road
C.Neither A nor B
D.Both A and B
Answer: Option D
61.
A wife had only seen a speeding vehicle, which had crushed the husband at a
little distance. She had not seen the accident herself. The husband died of
heart attack a day later. Can wife's evidence be taken of what the injured
husband said to her after the accident?
A.Yes, it being a dying declaration
B.No, it is merely a hearsay evidence
C.No, because it is a privileged communication
D.Yes, it being a part of res-gestae
62. The presumption of continuance of life is contained in Section
. . . . . . . . of the Evidence Act
A.107
B.108
C.207
D.115
63.
Answer: Option
A
A, agrees, in writing, to sell a horse to B for "Rs. 1,000 or
Rs. 1,500. To show which price was to be given, under Indian Evidence Act-
A.Evidence can be given
B.Evidence cannot be given
C.Evidence can be given by the Court's permission
D.Can be proved as secondary evidence
Answer: Option
B
64.
A traveller while travelling has been asked for the ticket by the ticket
checker, the traveller replies he has purchased the ticket. Ticket checker
prosecutes the traveller for travelling without ticket. In this case, under
which section on whom the burden of proof lies will be determined?
A.Section 106
B.Section 105
C.Section 107
D.Section 104
Answer: Option
A
65. Question is this, whether A was raped and murdered? The fact
that she said, without making complaint, that she was raped
A.Will be relevant as conduct
B.Will be relevant as substantial evidence
C.Will be relevant as secondary evidence
D.Canbe relevant under Section 32(1) or Section 157 of the
Evidence Act
Answer: Option
D
66.
The fact sought to be proved is called
A.Factum probans
B.Factum probandum
C.Lex Fori
D.Lex Loci
Answer: Option
B
67.
The Indian Evidence Act came into force on?
A.1st January, 1872
B.1st April, 1872
C.1st September, 1872
D.31st March, 1872
Answer: Option
C
68.
Which of the following statements hold true for the admissions?
A.The admissions made to strangers are not admissible under the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
B.Before admitting the evidence of the admission, it should be
brought to the notice of the party who made it
C.Admissions can be oral as well as written in documents
D.Only judicial admissions are acceptable under the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Option
C
69.
The conduct to be relevant under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, it:
A.Must be previous
B.Must be subsequent
C.May be either previous or subsequent
D.None of the above
Answer: Option
C
70.
In which Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, provisions of 'Estoppel' are
given:
A.From Section 115 to 117
B.From Section 118 to 120
C.From Section 110 to 124
D.From Section 107 to 109
Answer: Option A
According to Indian Evidence Act, a fact is said to be 'not proved', when the:
A.Court believes that the fact does not exist
B.Court considers its non-existence probable
C.Fact is neither proved nor disproved
D.Court considers its existence doubtful beyond reasonable doubt
72.
Answer: Option
C
Expert opinion is relevant under Section . . . . . . . . of the
Indian Evidence Act
A.Section 41
B.Section 43
C.Section 44
D.Section 45
73.
Answer: Option
D
Standard of proof in
A.Civil and criminal cases is the same
B.Criminal cases is much more higher than in civil cases
C.Criminal case is lower than in civil cases
D.Either A or C are correct
74.
Answer: Option
B
In the Indian Evidence Act, the expression "Court"
means:
A.All Judges
B.All Magistrates
C.All persons except Arbitrators, legally authorised to take
evidence
D.All the above
Answer: Option
D
75.
What is the meaning of "Not proved" under Indian Evidence Act?
A.Fact does not exist
B.Non-existance probable
C.Court has doubt
D.Neither proved nor disproved
76.
Answer: Option
D
The principle on which a dying declaration is admitted in evidence
is indicated in legal maxim:
A.Nemo moriturus proesumitur mentiri
B.Lex fori
C.Res judica
D.None of them
77.
Answer: Option
A
Which section deal with Oral Evidence?
A.Section 54
B.Section 14
C.Section 37
D.Section 60
78.
Answer: Option
D
Which one cannot make admission?
A.Agent of parties
B.Person from whom parties have derived interest
C.Admission by co-defendant
D.Those persons who have been made umpires by parties to the case
79.
Answer: Option
C
A document required by law to be attested can be proved under
Section 68 of the Evidence Act only by calling:
A.Both the attesting witnesses
B.Some other person who has the knowledge of the contents
C.At least one of the attesting witnesses
D.All of the above
80.
Answer: Option
C
By which one of the following amendments Section 53A has been
inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008
B.Indian Evidence (Amendments) Act, 2002
C.Criminal Law (Amendments) Act, 2005
D.Criminal Law (Amendments) Act, 2013
Answer: Option D
Factum Probandum means:
A.Conclusive fact
B.The fact that is probable
C.The fact that has to be believed
D.The principal fact to be proved
82.
Answer: Option
D
Which is the correct order of examination of witnesses?
A.Cross-examination, examination-in-chief, re-examination
B.Examination-in-chief, re-examination, cross-examination
C.Examination-in-chief, cross-examination, re-examination
D.None of these
83.
Answer: Option
C
When a party refuses to produce a document which he has notice to
produce, can he use the document as evidence afterwards?
A.He cannot do so
B.He can use it with the consent of other party
C.He may use it by the order of court
D.Both B and C
84.
Answer: Option
D
Under Section 113A of the Evidence Act, the Court . . . . . . . .
presume and under Section 113B of the Evidence Act, the Court . . . . . . . .
presume:
A.May, shall
B.May, may
C.Shall, shall
D.Shall, may
85.
Answer: Option
A
If the attested witness denies or does not recollect the execution
of the document, its execution may be proved by other evidence under . . . . .
. . . of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
A.Section 68
B.Section 69
C.Section 70
D.Section 71
E.None of these
86.
Answer: Option
D
The essential conditions for the dying declaration to be relevant
include the
1. Statement is made by a person as to the cause of his death.
2. Statement is made by a person as to any of the circumstances of the
transaction which resulted in his death.
3. Person must have been under expectation of death at the time of making the
statement.
Which of the above propositions is/are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 3
D.All these
87.
Answer: Option
A
Court question under Section 165 of Evidence Act can be put to
A.Any witness
B.Any party
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
88.
Answer: Option
C
Which of the following statements hold true for examination in
chief of a witness?
A.The leading questions can be used
B.It must only relate to relevant facts
C.It must only relate to the fact in question
D.All of these
89.
Answer: Option
B
In which year the electronic evidence was incorporated in the
Indian evidence Act as a part of documentary Evidence?
A.2001
B.2002
C.2000
D.1999
90.
Answer: Option
C
Under the Evidence Act, Court includes
A.All Judges
B.All Magistrates
C.All Arbitrators
D.A and B
Answer: Option D
When a witness shall be compelled to answer a question is decided by the:
A.Public prosecutor
B.Advocate of the accused
C.Court
D.Witness himself
92.
Answer: Option
C
In criminal trials, it is bound to presume
A.That the case of the accused falls in any of the general or
special exceptions
B.That the case of the accused falls in proviso to the provision
under which he is charged
C.The absence of the case of the accused falling in any general or
special exceptions or the proviso to the provision under which the accused is
charged
D.Both A and B and not C
93.
Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecutions of rape cases is
raised by . . . . . . . .
A.Section 114 of the Evidence Act
B.Section 114B of the Evidence Act
C.Section 376 of the Indian Penal Code
D.Section 114A of the Evidence Act
94.
Answer: Option
D
The question is, whether 'A' committed murder of 'B' at Delhi on a
certain day. The fact that, on that day 'A' was at Mumbai is:
A.Relevant under Section 6 of Evidence Act
B.Relevant under Section 8 of Evidence Act
C.Relevant under Section 11 of Evidence Act
D.Not relevant under any of the provisions of Indian Evidence Act
95.
Answer: Option
C
A non-confessional statement recorded under section 164 of
Criminal Procedure Code
A.Is a substantive piece of evidence
B.Is not a substantive evidence
C.May or may not be substantive evidence depending on the facts
and circumstances
D.All of these
96.
Answer: Option
B
In criminal cases previous bad character of accused is-
A.Relevant
B.Always irrelevant
C.Relevant when evidence has been given that he has a good
character
D.Relevant when evidence has been given that he has a good
character and when bad character is itself in issue
97.
Answer: Option
D
Match the following:
|
List I |
List II |
|
a. Section-60 |
1. Leading question |
|
b. Section-141 |
2. Hostile Witness |
|
c. Section-154 |
3. Refresh memory |
|
d. Section-159 |
4. Oral evidence |
A.a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
B.a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
C.a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
D.a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
98.
Answer: Option
A
A tenant of an immovable property can deny title of the landlord
to such immovable property:
A.After the tenant vacates the property
B.If landlord is not the actual owner
C.If landlord had trespassed into the property and his title is
defective
D.In all cases covered by clauses (a) to (c)
99.
Answer: Option
A
In civil cases Indian Evidence Act bestows burden of proof on
A.The Petitioner
B.The respondents
C.The State Government
D.The Court
100.
Answer: Option
A
Resumption of Dowry death is included in the Evidence Act under
A.Section 54
B.Section 113B
C.Section 67
D.Section 86
Answer: Option B
A fact is conclusive proof of another fact. If that fact is proved than:
A.The
court can call upon a party to prove another fact
B.The
court can allow opposite party to adduce the evidence to disprove another fact
C.Both
A and B
D.The
court shall regards another fact as proved
Answer: Option D
2.
Assertion
(A): In criminal cases the fact that accused is of good character
is relevant.
Reason
(R): In criminal cases bad character of the accused is
always irrelevant.
Select the correct answer:
A.Both
A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.Both
A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.A
is true but R is false
D.A
is false but R is true
Answer: Option C
3.
A
confession is admissible if it is made by the accused to-
A.A
police officer
B.A
doctor whilst he is in the custody of a police officer
C.His
friend whilst he is in the custody of a police officer
D.A
spiritual adviser under the inducement for the good of his soul
Answer: Option D
4.
Principle
of "ALIBI" is indirectly covered in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under
A.Section
6
B.Section
8
C.Section
9
D.Section
11
Answer: Option D
5.
The
Indian Evidence Act
A.Applies
to proceedings before an arbitrator
B.Does
not apply to proceedings before an arbitrator
C.Does
not apply to appeals
D.Is
basically a substantive law
Answer: Option B
6.
Which
of the following statements is incorrect about accomplice?
A.Court
may tender pardon to accomplice under the Section 306 of Criminal Procedure
Code
B.Court
may tender pardon only in those offences which are punishable up to 7 years of
imprisonment
C.It
is necessary for the court to record its reason in every case of pardon
D.The
object of pardoning is to obtain evidence from the accused
Answer: Option B
7.
According
to section 65 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 the secondary evidence can be
admitted in . . . . . . . . exceptional cases.
A.Three
B.Five
C.Seven
D.Nine
Answer: Option C
8.
Under
Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act
A.Motive
is relevant
B.Preparation
is relevant
C.Conduct
is relevant
D.All
of the above are relevant
Answer: Option D
9.
Propositions
under Evidence Act are:
1. Statement is a genus, admission is a species & confession is a sub
species
2. Statement & admission are species & confession is a sub species
3. Statement & admission are genus & confession is a species
In this context which of the following is correct:
A.1
is correct, 2 and 3 are incorrect
B.1
and 2 are correct and 3 is incorrect
C.2
and 3 are correct and 1 is incorrect
D.3
is correct and 1 and 2 are incorrect
Answer: Option A
10.
In
which chapter of Indian Evidence Act provisions regarding Burden of proof are
codified
A.Chapter
IV
B.Chapter
V
C.Chapter
VI
D.Chapter
VII
Answer: Option D
Which one of the following is a leading case on confession to persons in
authority?
A.Ramesh Chandra Mehta v.
State of W. B.
B.Pyare Lal Bhargawa v. State
of Rajasthan
C.Queen Empress v. Babu Lal
D.Sita Ram v. State
Answer: Option B
12.
In which of the following
circumstances are there no reasonable grounds for putting the question to the
witness?
A.A, a barrister, is told by
a solicitor that an important witness is a dacoit. The barrister asks the
question "Are you a dacoit?"
B.An advocate is informed by
a person in court that an important witness is a dacoit. The informant on being
questioned by the advocate gives satisfactory reasons for his statement. The
advocate asks this question, "Are you a dacoit?"
C.A witness of whom nothing
whatever is known is asked at random whether he is a dacoit
D.A witness of whom nothing
whatever is known on being questioned as to his mode of life and means of
living gives unsatisfactory answers. The witness is asked, "Are you a
dacoit?"
Answer: Option C
13.
Confession of an accused is
admissible against the other co-accused
A.Under Section 28 of the
Evidence Act
B.Under Section 29 of the
Evidence Act
C.Under Section 30 of the
Evidence Act
D.Under Section 31 of the
Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
14.
To what facts of the
following the rules of relevancy have been discussed under Section 8 of the
Indian Evidence Act?
A.Motive
B.Preparation
C.Previous or subsequent
conduct
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
15.
The Court shall not take
judicial notice of
A.Geographical divisions of
the world
B.Public festivals notified
in the official gazette
C.National flag of a foreign
country recognized by the Government of India
D.An officer's signature
whose appointment is not notified in an official gazette
Answer: Option D
16.
"The burden of proof in
a suit or proceeding lies on that person who would fail if no evidence at all
were given on either side."
This provision is contained in which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section-101
B.Section-111
C.Section-102
D.Section-113
Answer: Option C
17.
Though the contempt
proceedings are judicial proceedings, the strict rules of evidence contained in
the Evidence Act do not apply to proceedings under the Contempt of Courts Act
because
A.Of summary nature of
inquiry
B.Contempt matters are
governed by special Acts
C.Contempt of courts does not
require enquiry and the investigation
D.Contempt proceedings are
tried in higher judiciary
Answer: Option A
18.
Presumption as to the
genuineness of gazettes in electronic form has been dealt with under
A.Section 81A of Evidence Act
B.Section 88A of Evidence Act
C.Section 90A of Evidence Act
D.Section 73Aof Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
19.
The case of Pakala Narayan
Swamy v. Emperorpertains to
A.Estoppel
B.Dying declaration
C.Hostile witness
D.Accomplice evidence
Answer: Option B
20.
Secondary evidence is
admissible:
A.Where the non-production of
primary evidence has not been accounted for
B.Where the non-production of
primary evidence has been accounted for
C.Irrespective of whether the
nonproduction of primary evidence has been accounted for or not
D.Both A and C are correct
Answer: Option B
Section 14 of Evidence Act makes relevant the facts which show the existence of
A.Any state of mind
B.Any state of body or bodily
feeling
C.Either state of mind or of
body or bodily feeling
D.A particular state of mind
and a state of body
Answer: Option C
22.
When the language used in a
document is, on its face, ambiguous or defective, . . . . . . . . . of facts
which would show its meaning or supply its defects
A.Evidence may be given
B.Oral evidence may be given
C.Documentary evidence may be
given
D.Evidence may not be given
Answer: Option D
23.
Cross-examination under
Section 137 of the Evidence Act means which one of the following?
A.Examination of a witness by
a party who calls him
B.Examination of a witness by
the adverse party
C.Examination of a witness by
a party who calls him and the adverse party
D.Examination of a witness by
the Court
Answer: Option B
24.
Which one of the following
case related to the dying declaration?
A.Mehboob Shah v. King
Emperor
B.Queen v. Abdullah
C.Motayya v. King Emperor
D.M. C. Vergese v. Ponane
Answer: Option B
25.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872, evidence of "hostile witness"
A.Cannot be taken into
consideration for any purpose
B.It cannot be relied on by
the prosecution
C.It can be relied only by
the defence
D.It can be relied on by the
prosecution as well as the defence
Answer: Option D
26.
A confessional statement made
by a co-accused may be admissible against the other accused
A.If the offence is committed
jointly
B.Have committed same offence
C.Are being jointly tried for
the same offence
D.Are being jointly tried
Answer: Option C
27.
Under Evidence Act, which of
the following facts need not be proved?
A.All laws in force in India
B.All public Acts
C.Proceedings of Parliament
and Legislative Assemblies of India
D.All of them
Answer: Option D
28.
Telling his wife that P's
wife had called him to receive payments due to him, K leaves his house. After
two days, his dismembered body is found in a trunk. In P's trial for murder of
K, the statement made by K to his wife is:
A.Inadmissible
B.Partly admissible
C.Inadmissible as it does not
directly relate to K's death
D.Admissible as it relates to
the circumstance of the transaction which resulted in K's death
Answer: Option D
29.
Which statement is not true?
A.If a contract be contained
in several letters, all the letters must be proved
B.If a bill IIof exchange is
drawn in a set of three, all the three need to be proved
C.If a contract is contained
a bill of exchange, the bill of exchange must be proved
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
30.
Under the Indian Evidence
Act, the evidence may be given in all cases about:
A.Facts in issue only
B.Relevant facts only
C.Facts in issue and relevant
facts only
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
31.
Section 27 of the Evidence
Act applies to discovery of some fact which:
A.The police had not
previously learnt from other sources and was first derived from the information
given by the accused
B.The police had not
previously learnt from other sources
C.The police had previously
learnt from other sources and the accused has also given information regarding
the same
D.All of the above
Answer: Option A
32.
Relevant entries in the books
of account alone
A.Are sufficient to charge
any person with liability
B.Can be taken into
consideration in a criminal trial
C.Are not sufficient to
charge any person with liability
D.Can help a judge in
deciding a suit
Answer: Option C
33.
An admission is not relevant
in a civil case if it is-
A.Relevant otherwise than as
an admission
B.Proceeding from a person in
authority
C.Made under circumstances
from which the court can infer that the parties agreed together that evidence
of it should not be given
D.Made by a pleader, attorney
or a vakil
Answer: Option C
34.
Section 91 of Evidence Act
applies to documents which are
A.Unilateral
B.Bilateral
C.Tripartite
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
35. Indian
Evidence Act: A disputed handwriting can be proved-
A.By examining a person
acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document
B.By comparison of the court
the disputed signature with some admitted signature
C.By calling an handwriting
expert
D.All of these
Answer: Option D
36.
In which judgment, the
Hon'ble Supreme Court has laid down that a party, who is desirous of proving
electronic evidence but does not have access to the device from which, the
document was produced, is not required to produce and prove the certificate under
Section 65B of the Evidence Act:
A.State of Delhi NCT v.
Navjot Sandhu @ Afsan Guru, AIR 2005 SC 3826
B.Harpal Singh @ Chhota v.
State of Punjab, 2016 (4) Crimes 154
C.Anvar P. V. v. P. K.
Bashir, AIR 2015 SC 180
D.Shaft Mohd. v. State of
Himachal Pradesh, SLP (Cri) No. 3202/2017, decided on 30.1.2018
Answer: Option D
37.
"A's" death is
caused due to negligent driving of 'B'. In the word "forming part of the
same transaction" occurs?
A.The fact that 'A' was a
young man of 30 years
B.The fact that 'A' was a
young man with good physique
C.The fact that 'A' had
qualified in P. C. S. (J)
D.The fact that 'B' was in
the habit of driving negligently
Answer: Option D
38.
Who can take identification
parade?
A.Police officer
B.Magistrate
C.Any citizen
D.Any of these
Answer: Option A
39.
One of the most important
principles of the law of evidence is that "evidence is to be weighed and
not to be counted." This has been incorporated under which Section of
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 mainly under
A.Section 132
B.Section 133
C.Section 123
D.Section 134
Answer: Option D
40.
A' is tried for the murder of
'B'. The fact that marks on the ground produced by a struggle at or near the
place where the murder was committed are relevant facts. It is an illustration
of:
A.Facts forming part of same
transaction
B.Facts necessary to explain
or induce relevant facts
C.Facts showing existence of
state of mind or of body or bodily feeling
D.Facts as the occasion,
cause or effect of facts in issue
Answer: Option D
1.
According to Section 25
ofIndian Evidence Act, 1872, a confession made before a police officer
A.Must be proved
B.Need not be proved
C.Must be proved only in
certain cases
D.Must be proved by that
police officer
Answer: Option B
42.
A news item in the newspaper
stated that those who will open industrial units in North-east India will be
exempted from Corporate Tax for 5 years. X who wanted to set up an industry,
applied to Director of Industries as well as to the Chief Secretary of one of
the States and both confirmed the availability of Exemption. X proceeded with
his plans. However, the State Government withdrew its policy after one year.
Can X bring estoppel against the State?
A.No, because estoppel cannot
be against State
B.No, as there was no direct
promise between the State and X
C.Yes, X can bring a suit of
estoppel as he suffered detriment on the promise made by the State
D.It will be at the
discretion of Court
Answer: Option A
43.
Confession of co-accused is
admissible under which section of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 29
B.Section 30
C.Section 31
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
44.
Secondary evidence includes
A.Certified copy of a court's
judgement
B.Oral account by any person
of a document who has seen it
C.Copies prepared or compared
with originals
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
45.
An evidence sought through
unfair means is:
A.Not admissible
B.Admissible, if relevant
C.Admissible only at the
discretion of Court
D.Not valid
Answer: Option B
46.
According to which section of
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, The Court may direct any person present in Court
to write any words or figures for the purpose of enabling the Court to compare
the words or figures so written with any words or figures alleged to have been
written by such person.
A.Section 62
B.Section 65A
C.Section 12
D.Section 73
Answer: Option D
47.
When any fact is especially
with in the knowledge of accused, the burden of proving that fact is upon.
A.Accused
B.Prosecution
C.Either accused or
prosecution
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
48.
A fact is said "not to
be proved" in Indian Evidence Act
A.When is disproved
B.After considering the
matters before it, the Court believes that it does not exist
C.When a prudent men
considers that the fact does not exist
D.When it is neither proved
nor disproved
Answer: Option D
49.
Which of the following
statements is correct?
A.Admissions could be oral
only
B.Admissions could be
documentary only
C.Admissions could be oral or
documentary
D.Admissions are conclusive
proof of the matters admitted
Answer: Option C
50.
The 'conduct' of any party
for the purpose of Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act does not include
statements:
A.By that party previous to
the happening of fact in issue
B.Unless they accompany and
explain acts other than statements
C.Unless they accompany and
explain acts involved in those statements
D.By the party subsequent to
the happening of the fact in issue
Answer: Option C
Without appearing before court, statements of some persons, in certain
circumstances mentioned in Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, are
considered relevant. Who among the following is not included in this category?
A.Who can not be found
B.Who has become incapable of
giving evidence
C.Who is not willing to
appear before the court
D.Whose attendance can not be
procured without delay
Answer: Option C
52.
Essential requirement for
application of Section 27 of Evidence Act are . . . . . . . .
A.Person giving information
must be an accused of any offence
B.The person must be in
police custody
C.The person mayor may not be
in police custody
D.A and B both
Answer: Option D
53.
Kaushal Rao v. State of
Bombay, AIR 1958 SC 22 is related with which topic of the law of evidence?
A.Confession
B.Admission
C.Dying declaration
D.Estoppel
Answer: Option C
54.
The Criminal Law (Amendment)
Act, 2005 amended:
A.Section 73A of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
B.Section 154 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
C.Section 22A of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
D.Section 47A of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Option B
55.
Under which of the following
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act the previous judgments are relevant to bar
a second suit or trial?
A.Section 39
B.Section 40
C.Section 11
D.Section 42
Answer: Option B
56.
Under section 83 of Evidence
Act, presumption as to accuracy of maps and plans can be raised in respect of
A.Maps and plans made by
private persons
B.Maps and plans made by the
authority of Government
C.Both A and B above
D.Only A and not B
Answer: Option B
57.
Select the right option based
on following Assertion-Reason:
Assertion
(A): The evidence of an accomplice requires to be accepted
with a great degree of caution and scrutiny.
Reason
(R): He hopes for pardon or has secured it and so favours
the prosecution.
A.Both A and R are
individually true and R is correct explanation of A
B.Both A and R are
individually true, but R is not the correct explanation A
C.A is true but R is false
D.A is false but R is true
Answer: Option B
58.
Admission is
A.A conclusive proof of the
fact stated therein
B.Not a conclusive proof but
operates only as estoppel
C.A weak piece of evidence
D.An evidence on which the
Court can act
Answer: Option B
59.
A witness described in detail
the articles decorated in the room while giving statement before the court.
This is a:
A.Fact
B.Opinion
C.Document
D.Cause
Answer: Option A
60.
Which of the following
statements is correct?
A.Section 115 of the Indian
Evidence Act applies to contracts by infants
B.Pardanashin ladies are
exempt from estoppel
C.A representation made by an
agent is effectual for the purpose of estoppelas if it had been made by his
principal
D.An admission by an advocate
even if it is erroneous in law is binding on his client
Answer: Option C
Under section 116 of Evidence Act, the tenant is estopped
A.From denying the title to
the property, of the landlord
B.From denying the title to
the property, of the actual owner
C.Both A and B
D.Only and not A
Answer: Option A
62.
All persons are competent to
testify unless the court considers that they are prevented from understanding
the questions put to them because of
A.Tender years
B.Extreme old age
C.Mental disease
D.All these
Answer: Option D
63.
Dagdu v. State of Maharashtra
is related with
A.Accomplice
B.Burden of proof
C.Res-gestae
D.Hostile witness
Answer: Option A
64.
Which one of the following
sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides exception to the rule
"hearsay evidence is not admissible":
A.Section 29
B.Section 30
C.Section 31
D.Section 32
Answer: Option D
65.
"Written document must
be proved by writing only", this maxim has been incorporated under which
of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
A.Section 87
B.Section 91
C.Section 121
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
66.
The question is, whether A
committed murder of a person on a particular day at Kolkata, the fact that on
that day A was at Lahore-
A.Is relevant
B.Is irrelevant
C.Is not relevant
D.None of these
Answer: Option A
67.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I (Provisions) |
List II (Sections of Evidence Act) |
|
a. Burden of Proof |
1. Section 106 |
|
b. On whom burden of proof
lies |
2. Section 103 |
|
c. Burden of Proof as to
particular fact |
3. Section 102 |
|
d. Burden of proving fact especially
within knowledge |
4. Section 101 |
A.a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
B.a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
C.a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
D.a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
Answer: Option C
68.
Which one of the following is
not correctly matched?
A.Hostile witness ⇔ Section 154
B.Burden of proof as to
ownership ⇔ Section 110
C.Refreshing memory ⇔ Section 159
D.Profession communication ⇔ Section 124
Answer: Option D
69.
Under Indian Evidence Act a
copy compared with a copy of a letter made by a copying machine is
A.Primary evidence
B.Oral evidence
C.Secondary evidence
D.Any of the above
Answer: Option C
70.
Which of the following does
not constitute secondary evidence?
A.A photograph of the
original document taken on a smart phone
B.A copy compared with the
original document made by a copying machine
C.Copy transcribed from a
copy, not compared with the original
D.Oral evidence regarding the
contents of a document, by a person who has seen the original document
Answer: Option C
Which of the following statements is correct?
A.Admissions may be oral or
documentary or contained in an electronic form
B.Admissions is by
documentary proof only
C.Admissions are conclusive
proof of the matters admitted
D.Admissions include
admission by conduct
Answer: Option A
72.
Relevancy of facts is
contained in:
A.Sections 5 to 55, Indian
Evidence Act
B.Sections 6 to 54, Indian
Evidence Act
C.Sections 7 to 56, Indian
Evidence Act
D.Sections 8 to 55, Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
73.
Select the incorrect
statements:
1. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to arbitration proceedings.
2. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to proceedings before a Commissioner
appointed by the court for recording evidence
3. The Indian Evidence Act applies to affidavits presented to Courts
4. The Indian Evidence Act applies to judicial proceedings held before all
kinds of military courts
A.2 and 3 are incorrect
B.2, 3 and 4 are incorrect
C.1 and 3 are incorrect
D.None of the above is
incorrect
Answer: Option B
74.
The question is whether A
committed a crime at Calcutta on a certain day, fact that on that day A was at
Lahore is relevant
A.As introductory to fact in
issue
B.As preparation of fact in
issue
C.As it makes existence of
fact in issue highly improbable
D.As a motive for fact in
issue
E.None of these
Answer: Option C
75.
In order to raise a
presumption in favour of an electronic produced before a Court from any proper
custody the record must be minimum of
A.Five years old
B.Ten years old
C.Fifteen years old
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
76.
Sections 79 to 85 of Evidence
Act contain
A.Presumption of facts
B.Rebuttable presumptions of
law
C.Irrebuttable presumption of
law
D.Irrebuttable presumptions
of facts
Answer: Option B
77.
Under the Indian Evidence
Act, the character of a person is not relevant in which of the following cases
A.Previous good character of
an accused in criminal case
B.Previous bad character in
reply to good character in criminal case
C.Character to prove conduct
imputed in civil case
D.Character affected the
amount of damage in civil case
Answer: Option D
78.
Section 74 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
A.Testamentary document
B.Non-Testamentary document
C.Personal document
D.Public document
Answer: Option D
79.
When is the opinion of
experts relevant?
A.When the court has to form
an opinion of science or art
B.When identity of
handwriting or finger impressions is to be decided
C.When opinion has to be
formed upon a point of foreign law
D.In all the above matters
Answer: Option D
80.
A party/person who calls the
witness can be permitted to cross-examine the witness so called by him, as
provided
A.Under section 152 of
Evidence Act
B.Under section 153 of
Evidence Act
C.Under section 154 of
Evidence Act
D.Under section 155 of
Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
Under the law of evidence, as a general rule
A.Opinion on a matter of fact
is relevant but not on a matter of law
B.Opinion on a matter of law
is relevant but not on a matter of fact
C.Opinion on a matter of fact
and law both are relevant
D.Opinion whether on a matter
of fact or law, is irrelevant
Answer: Option D
82.
Mark the incorrect statement:
A.Evidence is always allowed
of facts which are necessary to introduce the main fact or some relevant fact
B.Evidence can be given of
facts which support or rebut an inference suggested by a fact in issue or
relevant fact
C.Facts which contradict the
inference of guilt will also be relevant
D.Circumstances of the
situation are not relevant to prove an identity
Answer: Option D
83.
Additional Evidence means:
A.Evidence let in appeal
before the trial has closed in the lower Court, it is a privilege allowed only
under special circumstances
B.Evidence let in appeal
after the trial has closed in the Supreme Court, it is a privilege allowed only
under special circumstances
C.Evidence let in appeal
after the trial has closed in the lower Court, it is a privilege allowed only
under special circumstances
D.None of them
Answer: Option C
84.
Assertion (A): In certain cases
corroboration of confession is necessary.
Reason
(R): In all cases, an extra-judicial confession must be
corroborated
A.Both A and R are true and R
is the correct explanation of A
B.Both A and R are true, but
R is not the correct explanation of A
C.A is true but R is false
D.A is false but R is true
Answer: Option B
85.
Which one of the following
declaration is not correct with respect to the rule of res-gestae?
A.Must relate to the act
which is in issue or relevant
B.Must relate to and explain
the accompanying facts
C.Must be independent facts
previous or subsequent not relating to the transaction
D.Must be substantially
contemporaneous with the facts
Answer: Option C
86.
Facts which need not be
proved by the parties, include:
A.Facts which have been
admitted by the parties at or before the hearing
B.Statements made on oath
C.Any registered document
D.Statements made in plaint
or in written statement supported by affidavit
Answer: Option A
87.
Case of Pakala Narayan Swami
v. King Emperor is related with
A.Section 6 of the Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 21(1) of the Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 32(1) of the Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 41 of the Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
88.
A "dumb witness"
given his evidence in writing in the open court, such evidence would be treated
as
A.Oral evidence
B.Documentary evidence
C.Secondary evidence
D.Primary evidence
Answer: Option A
89.
Assertion (A): Proviso to Section 132,
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is a facet of rule against self-incrimination.
Reason (R): Policy of Section 132, Indian Evidence Act is to procure evidence
for doing justice.
Choose the correct answer:
A.Both A and R are true and R
is the correct explanation of A
B.Both A and R are true and R
is not the correct explanation of A
C.A is true, but R is false
D.A is false, but R is true
Answer: Option A
90.
Rule of promissory estoppel
is embodied in
A.Civil Procedure Code
B.Constitution of India
C.Evidence Act
D.Indian Contract Act
Answer: Option C
1.
Relevant facts to consider a
statement under section 32 of Evidence Act, are
A.When if relates to cause of
death
B.When it relates to
existence of relationship
C.When it is made in will or
in deed relating to family affair
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
92.
Under Order 32, Rule 2A, CPC
a person guilty of disobedience of breach can be penalized by
A.Attachment of property
B.Detention in civil
imprisonment
C.Either A or B or both
D.Either A or B
Answer: Option C
93.
The relationship under
Section 50 of Evidence Act means relationship by
A.Blood only
B.Marriage only
C.Adoption
D.Either adoption, blood or
marriage
Answer: Option D
94.
The 'fact in issue' means
A.Fact, the existence or
non-existence of which is admitted by the parties
B.Fact, the existence or
non-existence of which is disputed by the parties
C.Fact, the existence or
non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties
D.All of the above
Answer: Option B
95.
An attesting witness is:
A.One who signs his name to
an instrument, at the request of the party or parties, for the purposes of
proving or identifying it
B.A witness who has attested
the document
C.Both A and B
D.None of them
Answer: Option C
96.
Section 92 of Evidence Act
prohibits admission of oral evidence, in respect of a written document, for the
purpose of
A.Contradicting its terms
B.Varying its terms
C.Adding to its terms
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
97.
A is accused of the murder of
B by beating him. What is not admissible as evidence?
A.Whatever was said by A or B
or by standers at the time of beating
B.A has intention for murder
of B
C.Marks on the ground of
struggle between A and B
D.A is a man of bad character
Answer: Option D
98.
Maxim 'omnia proesumuntur
rite esse acta' means
A.All acts are presumed to be
rightly done
B.All acts are presumed to be
not rightly done
C.All acts are presumed to be
wrongly done
D.All acts are presumed to be
not wrongly done
Answer: Option A
99.
Court can ask question under
Section 165 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to
A.Any party and witness
B.A non-party
C.Legal representatives of
the party to proceedings
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
100.
Point out the incorrect
statement:
A.No leading question may be
asked in examination in chief without permission of court
B.Leading questions may be
asked in cross-examination with the permission of the court
C.No new matter should be
introduced in re-examination without permission of the court
D.None of the above is
correct
Answer: Option C
The principle that possession is prima facie proof of ownership is contained
under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
A.Section
117
B.Section
116
C.Section
111
D.Section
110
Answer: Option D
2.
Who
among the following is a competent witness under Section-118 of Indian Evidence
Act
A.A
child unable to understand questions put to him
B.A
lunatic able to understand questions put to him
C.A
person unable to understand questions put to him due to extremely old age
D.A
person who is unable to understand questions put to him due to disease
Answer: Option B
3.
Court
will presume an abetment of suicide by a married woman, when it is shown that
she committed suicide within a period of . . . . . . . . of her marriage:
A.Three
years
B.Five
years
C.Seven
years
D.Ten
years
Answer: Option C
4.
An
accused in police custody, informs to the State House Officer that the key by
which he opened the safe and committed theft is kept by him in the patio of his
house. To what extent this information can be proved?
A.For
committing an offence of theft
B.For
opening lock of safe
C.For
committing theft by opening safe and destroying evidence
D.For
keeping the key in patio of house
Answer: Option D
5.
A'
sells to 'B' by deed my estate at Raipur containing 200 bighas. "A"
has an estate at Raipur containing 200 bighas. Whether evidence may be given of
the fact that estate meant to be sold was one situated at a different place and
of a different size:
A.Yes
B.No
C.Inference
should be drawn from the sale deed
D.Both
A and C
Answer: Option B
6.
Estoppel
A.Need
not be specifically pleaded
B.Should
be specifically pleaded
C.May
be specifically pleaded or may not be specifically pleaded
D.Both
B and C are correct
Answer: Option B
7.
Which
section of the Indian Evidence Act provides that no particular number of
witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact?
A.Section
135
B.Section
134
C.Section
136
D.Section
132
Answer: Option B
8.
Which
one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides the provision
regarding 'plea of Alibi'
A.Section
7
B.Section
6
C.Section
4
D.Section
11
Answer: Option D
9.
Which
one of the following facts is not relevant under the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Where
accused was charged for the murder of X, the fact that accused was in the habit
of shooting at people
B.Where
accused was charged for receiving stolen property, the fact that he was in
possession of many other stolen articles
C.Where
a person is sued for damage done by his dog to the plaintiff which the person
knew to be ferocious, the fact that the dog had previously bitten others and
they had made complaints
D.Where
a person was accused for murder in Delhi, the fact that he was in New York on
the day of alleged murder
Answer: Option A
10.
Section
112 of Evidence Act contains
A.A
presumption of fact
B.A
rebuttable presumption of law
C.An
irrebuttable presumption of law
D.A
mixed presumption of fact and law
Answer: Option C
.
A confession made to a police
officer is inadmissible under
A.Section 24 of Evidence Act
B.Section 25 of Evidence Act
C.Section 26 of Evidence Act
D.Section 27 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
12.
The question is, whether a
horse sold by A to B is sound; A says to B-"go and ask C, C knows all
about it." C's statement is:
A.An admission
B.Not an admission
C.A confession
D.A presumption
Answer: Option A
13.
Which of the following
statement(s) is/are incorrect in the context of Section 65 of Indian Evidence
Act, 1872 regarding judge's power?
1. A Judge can ask any question he pleases, even irrelevant.
2. Judge may order production of any document or thing
3. Any party has right to make any objection to such question or order
4. The parties have inherent right to cross examine witness upon said
question/answer.
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1 and 4
E.None of the above
Answer: Option C
14.
A document which is old will
be presumed to be true by the Court, if it is:
A.Old for more than 5 years
B.Old for more than 10 years
C.Old for more than 20 years
D.Old for more than 30 years
Answer: Option D
15.
A, a sculptor, agrees to sell
to B "all my mods". A has both models and tools. Whether evidence can
be adduced to show his intention:
A.Yes
B.No
C.Inference should be drawn
to see the agreement
D.Oral evidence is not
admissible
Answer: Option A
16.
Under which section of
Evidence Act legitimacy of a child born during the lawful wedlock is presumed?
A.Section 112
B.Section 113
C.Section 114
D.Section 115
Answer: Option A
17.
Presumption under section
113A of Evidence Act can be raised if the suicide by the married woman is
committed
A.Within 7 years of marriage
B.Within 5 years of marriage
C.Within 3 years of marriage
D.Within 1 year of marriage
Answer: Option A
18.
A' is accused of murder of
'B' by pistol alleged to be purchased on 15th September at Dehradun. A
makes a statement that on 15th September he was at Lucknow, not at
Dehradun. A's Statement is a relevant fact under:
A.Section 8
B.Section 11(2)
C.Section 9
D.Section 14
Answer: Option B
19.
Which Provision of the Indian
Evidence Act deals with dying declaration?
A.Section 32(4)
B.Section 32(1)
C.Section 125
D.Section 131
Answer: Option B
20. Which of
the following provision of Indian Evidence Act defines the term 'Admission'?
A.Section 16
B.Section 17
C.Section 18
D.Section 21
Answer: Option B
A' is being tried for robbery with 'B'. 'A' was found in possession of B's
watch just after the robbery. Which of the following facts is relevant?
A.That 'A' was seen wearing
the watch before the robbery
B.That the watch was found
with 'B'
C.That 'A' robbed 'B'
D.That 'B' is habitual robber
Answer: Option A
22.
The court cannot take the
judicial notice of which fact?
A.Any news items published in
the newspaper
B.The existence of titles
recognized by the Government of India
C.The territories under the
dominant of the Government of India
D.The rule of the road and
land or at sea
Answer: Option A
23.
Confession made by a person
in police custody shall not be proved as against such person under which
Section of the Evidence Act?
A.Section 25
B.Section 26
C.Section 27
D.Section 28
Answer: Option B
24.
Which of the following
sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with 'without prejudice' rule?
A.Section 21
B.Section 22
C.Section 23
D.Section 24
Answer: Option C
25.
In deciding whether the
document falls in the category of 'unpublished official record' the court
A.Has the jurisdiction to
inspect the documents itself
B.The court is banned from
inspecting the document
C.The court can compel the
production of the document for inspection
D.Both A and C are correct
Answer: Option B
26.
For bribing a police officer.
A came to the police station and offered an Inspector packet of currency notes.
He told the inspector that B had sent the money as a consideration for hushing
up the case against him. The offer of money and the accompanying statement made
by A were relevant against
A.A only
B.B only
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
27.
Under which section of Indian
Evidence Act, the opinion relating to relationship is relevant?
A.Section 45
B.Section 46
C.Section 32(5)
D.Section 50
Answer: Option D
28. A fact is
said to be proved
A.If it is admitted
B.If it is incorporated in a
document
C.If it is not denied
D.If its existence is so
probable that a prudent man would accept it as existing
Answer: Option D
29.
Which is not a public record
as per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act
A.Documents forming the acts
or records of the sovereign authority
B.Documents forming the acts
or records of
C.Documents and
correspondence from advocate and Notary office
D.Documents and circulars
from University of Delhi
Answer: Option C
30. In case of
suicide by a married woman, the court under Section 113-A of the Indian
Evidence Act, may presume that suicide had been abetted by her husband, if-
1. Suicide was committed by the wife within a period of seven years from the
date of her marriage.
2. The wife was subjected to cruelty.
3. The wife was illiterate and from a poor family.
4. The wife was deserted by the husband.
Select the correct answer:
A.1, 2, 3
B.1, 3, 4
C.2, 4
D.1, 2
Answer: Option D
31.
Rigor mortis means
A.Dying declaration
B.Post-mortem
C.Time of death
D.Death certificate
Answer: Option C
32.
Burden of proving plea of
insanity lies on
A.The accused
B.The prosecution
C.Civil surgeon to whom the
accused was referred for examination
D.Both A and C
Answer: Option A
33.
A is tried for murder of B by
intentionally shooting him dead. The fact that A was in the habit of shooting
at people with intent to murder him-
A.Is relevant
B.Is irrelevant
C.Is relevant but cannot be
proved
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
34.
Under Section 145 of the
Indian Evidence Act, a witness may be contradicted as to his previous statement
in writing
A.Without drawing his
attention to the previous writing
B.After drawing his attention
to the previous writing
C.Without drawing or after
drawing his attention to the previous writing
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
35. According
to section 61 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872-
A.The contents of documents
must be proved by primary evidence
B.The contents of documents
must be proved by secondary evidence
C.The contents of documents
must be proved by both primary and secondary evidence
D.The contents of documents
must be proved either by primary or secondary evidence
Answer: Option D
36.
Which one of the following is
correct?
A.A person summoned to
produce a document becomes a witness by mere fact that he produces it
B.A person summoned to
produce a document becomes a witness by mere fact that he produces it and can
be cross examined without calling him as witness
C.A person summoned to
produce a document does not become a witness by the mere fact that he produces
it, and cannot be cross examined unless and until he is called as a witness
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
37.
"A "sells a horse
to "B" and verbally warrants him sound. 'A' gives 'B' a paper in
these words "bought of 'A' horse for Rs, 1,000" 'B' may prove the
verbal warranty. This evidence is
A.Admissible
B.Inadmissible
C.Irrelevant
D.None of these
Answer: Option A
38.
Which of the following
section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with things said or done by
conspirator in reference to common design?
A.Section 6
B.Section 10
C.Section 12
D.Section 8
Answer: Option B
39.
An Expert under Evidence Act
is a person
A.Who speaks fluent English
B.Expert in detecting lies
C.Having requisite skills on
a matter upon which he is giving opinion
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
40.
Under the Indian Evidence
Act, 'evidence' does not include:
A.Identification proceedings
B.Condition of witness at the
time of giving evidence
C.Facts of which judicial
notice is taken
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
Which of the following judgments is irrelevant under Section 43 of the Evidence
Act
A.Judgment of an Insolvency
Court
B.Judgment of an Matrimonial
Court
C.Judgment of a Probate Court
D.Judgment of a Criminal Court
Answer: Option D
42.
In which of the provisions of
Evidence Act, special provision as to evidence relating to electronic record
was added?
A.Section 65A and 65B
B.Section 64
C.Section 86
D.Section 116
Answer: Option A
43.
Which one of the following is
not a correct statement about expert opinion?
A.The opinion of an expert is
seldom conclusive
B.Facts which are irrelevant
become relevant when they support the opinion of experts
C.Expert opinion is binding
on the judge always
D.Evidence of experts is a
suggestive piece of evidence
Answer: Option C
44.
A confession made in police
custody is admissible under Section 26 of Evidence Act
A.If made in the presence of
a doctor
B.If made in the presence of
a captain of a vessel
C.If made in the presence of
a Magistrate
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
45.
The question of proving a
document arises when its execution is denied by the adverse party. In such a
case, a public document can be proved:
A.By its certified copy under
Section 77 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
B.In the Court by producing
oral evidence as oral accounts of contents of document
C.As an attested document by
attesting witnesses
D.By other witnesses who have
seen the contents of document where attesting witnesses have died or not found
or have become incapable
Answer: Option A
46.
Under which Section of the
Indian Evidence Act, D. N. A. test can admitted in Evidence?
A.Section 47
B.Section 45
C.Section 48
D.Section 49
Answer: Option B
47.
From the following which is
an exception to section 23 of the Evidence Act?
A.Section 126 of the Evidence
Act
B.Section 162 of the Evidence
Act
C.Section 125 of the Evidence
Act
D.Section 152 of the Evidence
Act
Answer: Option A
48.
Thirty years old document is
produced from a proper custody,
A.Court shall presume it's execution
B.Court may presume it's
execution
C.Presumption not involved
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
49.
Protection under section 122
of Evidence Act is
A.Confined to confidential
communication and not applicable to general communication between the husband
and wife
B.Not confined to
confidential communications only but extends to communication of whatever
nature
C.Confined to confidential
communication and may be extended to communications of general nature
D.Only C and not A or B
Answer: Option B
50.
Which of the following is not
secondary evidence?
A.Certified copies of public
documents
B.Copies made from or
compared with the original
C.Counterparts of documents
as against the parties who did not execute them
D.Oral accounts of the
contents of a document given by some person who has himself not seen it
Answer: Option D
A witness may refresh his memory by referring to any writing made by:
1. Him at the time of the transaction.
2. Him soon afterwards that the court considers the transaction fresh in his
memory.
3. Any person
4. Any other person present at the time of transaction.
Select the correct answer:
A.1 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.1, 2 and 4
D.3 and 4
Answer: Option C
52.
What of the following is not
included in expression 'Court' under the Indian Evidence Act?
A.All judges
B.All persons legally
authorised to take evidence
C.All magistrates
D.Arbitrator
Answer: Option D
53.
The rigor of conclusive
presumption of legitimacy under Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act can only
be rebutted by:
A.DNA testing about paternity
B.Non-access of parties
C.The fact that wife was
observing the menstrual period
D.The fact that the wife had
undergone tubectomy recently
Answer: Option B
54.
In the Indian Evidence Act,
the provision on presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman is
contained in
A.Section 112
B.Section 113-A
C.Section 114
D.Section 113-B
Answer: Option B
55.
When the Court has to form an
opinion as to the electronic signature of any person, the opinion of the
certifying authority which has issued the electronic signature certificate is:
A.Fact in issue
B.Relevant fact
C.Proved fact
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
56.
A' is tried for murder of 'B'
intentionally beating him with a club causing his death, which of the following
facts are in issue.
A.A's beating 'B' with club
B.A's causing B's death by
such beating
C.A's intention to cause B's
death
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
57.
Under which of the following
conditions, a leading question may be asked during examination-in-chief with
the permission of the Court?
A.In matters which are
disputed or not introductory
B.When matter in question is sufficiently
proved
C.Under both of the above
conditions
D.Under none of the above
conditions
Answer: Option B
58.
An accomplice is a person
A.Who participates in the
commission of the crime for which the accused has been charged
B.Who is a prefended
confedrate
C.Who is an informer
D.All the above
E.Both A and B
Answer: Option A
59.
Under which provision of the
Indian evidence act a judge is empowered to ask any question relevant or
irrelevant to a witness or party to a suit?
A.Section 164
B.Section 165
C.Section 166
D.None of the these
Answer: Option B
60.
Which of the following is the
best evidence?
A.Documentary evidence
B.Direct evidence
C.Hearsay evidence
D.Circumstantial evidence
Answer: Option B
Which provision of the Evidence Act relates to presumption as to documents
thirty years old (Ancient documents)?
A.Section 89
B.Section 90
C.Section 90A
D.Section 91
Answer: Option B
62.
Court can presume about the
legality of digital signature on electronic record under Indian Evidence Act,
1872 when it is
A.30 years old
B.15 years old
C.5 years old
D.12 years old
Answer: Option C
63.
An item of evidence which is
not a secondary evidence is
A.Copies made from the
original
B.Copies compared with the
original
C.Oral accounts of the
contents of a document given by a person who himself has seen it
D.Counter part of a document
as against the person who executed it
Answer: Option D
64.
Section 81A was added in the
Indian Evidence Act by the Information Technology Act, 2000 to provide the
presumption as to
A.Electronic agreements
B.Electronic messages
C.Electronic records
D.Gazettes in electronic
forms
Answer: Option D
65.
Evidence Act-In which
decision the five golden principle (panchasheel) about the circumstantial
evidence has been laid down?
A.Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v.
State of Maharashtra, AIR 1984 SC 1622
B.Rao Shiv Bahadur Singh v.
State of V. P., AIR 1954 SC 322
C.State of Uttar Pradesh v.
M. K. Anthony, AIR 1985 SC 48
D.Shankari Prasad v. Union of
India, AIR 1951 SC 455
Answer: Option A
66.
Which document is not
admissible without formal proof?
A.Admitted Document
B.Medical Report
C.Report of Chief Inspector
of Explosives
D.Report of a Director of the
Fingerprint Bureau
Answer: Option B
67.
In which one among the
following cases the Supreme Court of India said that 'it is not an absolute
rule of law that dying declaration must be corroborated by other evidence
before it can be acted upon'?
A.Sharad Birdhichand Sharda
v. State of Maharashtra
B.Pakala Narayan Swami v.
King Emperor
C.Kaushal Rao v. State of
Bombay
D.Harjit Kaur v. State of
Punjab
Answer: Option A
68.
A co-defendant in a case
A.Cannot be cross-examined by
another co-defendant under any circumstance
B.Can be cross-examined by
another co-defendant if their interests are identical
C.Can be cross-examined by
another co-defendant when their interests adverse to each other
D.Can be cross-examined by
another co-defendant as a matter of right
Answer: Option C
69.
Which one of the following
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides questions lawful in
cross-examination to be asked?
A.Section 146
B.Section 145
C.Section 144
D.Section 147
Answer: Option A
70.
The examination of a witness
by the adverse party shall be called his
A.Examination-in-chief
B.Cross examination
C.Re-examination
D.Examination on facts
Answer: Option B
As per Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 a "Leading
question" means
A.Any question informing the
answer
B.Any question suggesting the
answer
C.Any question directing the
answer
D.Any question declaring the
answer
Answer: Option B
72.
Which one of the following is
not the pre-requisite of presumption as to dowry-death under Section 113B of
Indian Evidence Act?
A.Victim was subjected to
cruelty or harassment by her husband or relatives
B.Victim had illicit
relationship with other male person
C.Such cruelty or harassment
was for connections with any demand for dowry
D.It was done within 7 years
of the marriage
Answer: Option B
73.
Necessity rule' as to the
admissible of evidence is contained in
A.Section 31 of Evidence Act
B.Section 32 of Evidence Act
C.Section 60 of Evidence Act
D.Section 61 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
74.
Conspiracy means
A.An act done b few person
B.An act of illegal nature
C.An act of legal nature by
illegal means
D.All of above
Answer: Option D
75.
Which one of the following
case is directly related to Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Pulukuri kottayya and
others v. Emperor
B.Pakala Narayan Swami v.
King Emperor
C.State of Maharashtra v.
Damu Gopinath Sinde
D.Palvinder Kaur v. State of
Punjab
Answer: Option B
76.
Recovery made by the police
under section 27 of the Evidence Act recording the formal arrest of the accused
is . . . . . . . .
A.Legal
B.Illegal
C.Irregular
D.Improper
Answer: Option A
77.
The question is, whether a
certain document was written by A. In this case which of the following is/are
relevant?
A.Another document is
produced which is written by A
B.The opinion of experts on
the question whether the two documents were written by A
C.The opinion of experts on
the question whether the two documents were written by different persons
D.Both B and C
Answer: Option D
78.
Chapter V of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
A.Oral evidence
B.Documentary evidence
C.Burden of proof
D.Witnesses
Answer: Option B
79.
Which of the following is
relevant and may be received in evidence?
A.Tape recordings
B.Dog-tracking
C.Narco analysis test
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
80.
In which of the following
cases constitutionality of Section 27 was challenged for violation of Article
20(3) of the Constitution?
A.State of Bombay v. Kathi
Kalu
B.Mirza Akbar v. King Emperor
C.State of Uttar Pradesh v.
Deoman Upadhaya
D.Queen Emperor v. Abdullah
Answer: Option A
In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that "any
information or material that is subsequently discovered with the help of
voluntarily administered test result can be admitted, in accordance with
Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872."?
A.Selvi v. State of Karnataka
B.C. Muniappam v. State of
Tamil Nadu
C.Sunderlal Kanaiyalal v.
State of Maharashtra
D.C. Mangesh v. State of
Karnaiaka
Answer: Option A
82.
Which one of the following
does not fall within the definition of the term Court under Indian Evidence
Act, 1872?
A.All Judges
B.All Magistrates
C.All Consumer Forums
D.All persons legally
authorised to take evidence
Answer: Option C
83.
Recent judgment of the
Supreme Court in Raju Devade v. State of Maharashtra deals with:
A.Dying declaration
B.Hostile witness
C.Child witness
D.Expert witness
Answer: Option A
84.
Under Section-47 A of the
Indian Evidence Act, disputed electronic signature of any person can be proved
by
A.Opinion of Expert
B.Opinion of the verifying
authority who has issued the Electronic Signature Certificate
C.Comparison of the
electronic signature by the court itself
D.All of these
Answer: Option D
85.
When the Indian Evidence Act
declares one fact to be conclusive proof of another the court.
A.May regard such fact as
proved, unless and until it is disproved, or may call for proof of it
B.Shall regard such fact as
proved, unless and until it is disproved
C.Shall regard the other as
proved
D.Shall, on proof of the one
fact, regard the other as proved, and shall not allow evidence to be given for
the purpose of disproving it
Answer: Option D
86.
Evidence of an accomplice is
relevant
A.Under Section 133
B.Under Section 124
C.Under Section 134
D.Under Section 167
Answer: Option A
87.
Match the columns:
|
Column-I |
Column-II |
|
a. Theft |
1. Deception |
|
b. Criminal
misappropriation of property |
2. Only movable property |
|
c. Criminal Breach of trust |
3. Taking without consent |
|
d. Cheating |
4. Entrustment of property |
A.a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
B.a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
C.a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
D.a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
Answer: Option C
88.
What is 'Shall Presume' in
regard to a fact?
A.Final proof
B.Court may presume that the
fact is proved
C.Court shall presume the
fact as proved unless it is disproved
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
89.
Queen v. Abdulla (1885) All
385 case Law is related to
A.Conduct
B.Consequences
C.Motive
D.Preparation
Answer: Option A
90.
Under Evidence Act,
confession of one accused is admissible in evidence against co-accused-
A.If they are tried jointly
for the same offence
B.If they are tried jointly
for different offences
C.If they are tried for the
same offences but not jointly
D.If they are tried for
different offences and also not jointly
Answer: Option A
.
Which one of the following is
not a secondary evidence?
A.Copies made from the
original by mechanical process
B.Copies made from or
compared with the original
C.Counterparts of documents
D.Lithography
Answer: Option D
92.
Under Section 145 of Evidence
Act, a witness may be cross-examined as to previous statement in writing:
A.Without proving the same
and without showing the same to the witness
B.Only after proving the
same, may be without showing the same to the witness
C.Without proving the same
but only after showing the same to the witness
D.Only after proving the same
and showing the same to the witness
Answer: Option A
93.
Which of the following is an
exception to the doctrine of estoppel?
A.Where a minor represents
fraudulently or otherwise that he is of age and thereby induces another to
enter into a contract with him
B.When true facts are known
to both the parties
C.When the representation is
against the statute
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
94.
A person suffering from
schizophrenia:
A.Is not competent to testify
B.Can testify if he can
communicate verbally
C.Can testify if he can
understand the questions and answer them rationally
D.Can testify through his
father who understands the questions and can give rational answers on his son's
behalf
Answer: Option C
95.
The principles of Section 44,
Indian Evidence Act cannot be extended to which of the following?
A.Misrepresentation or undue influence
B.Fraud
C.Collision
D.All of them
Answer: Option A
96.
The following section of the
Indian Evidence Act is related to dowry death:
A.113A
B.113B
C.114
D.114A
Answer: Option B
97.
Which of the following
statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act?
A.Sir H. S. Maine prepared
the draft Bill of the Act
B.Sir James Stephen prepared
the draft Bill of the Act
C.The draft Bill of the Act
was prepared by II Law Commission
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
98.
A' commits a crime and goes
to Police Officer. He makes confession and gives other information. 'A' is
charged with the offence. The confession-
A.Cannot be proved against
him because of Section 25 of the Evidence Act
B.Can be proved against him
because of Section 27 of the evidence Act
C.Can be proved against him
because of Section 25 of the Evidence Act
D.Cannot be proved against
him because of Section 27 of the Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
99.
Principle against hearsay
applies:
A.Only to oral evidence and
not to documentary evidence
B.Only to documentary
evidence and not to oral evidence
C.Both to oral evidence and
documentary evidence
D.Neither to oral evidence
nor documentary evidence
Answer: Option C
100.
Under Section 102 of the
Evidence Act burden of proof
A.Seldom changes
B.Never changes
C.Changes continuously
D.None of these
Answer: Option C
In which of the following cases, it was held that Section 27 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to Sections 24, 25 and 26?
A.Pakla
Narain Swamy v. King Emperor
B.Inayatullah
v. State of Maharashtra
C.State
of Uttar Pradesh v. Deoman Upadhyaya
D.P.
Kottayya v. King Emperor
Answer: Option B
2.
In
a suit after the examination and cross-examination of a witness, the plaint was
returned for presentation to the Court of competent jurisdiction. Before
proceedings started in the Court, the witness died. His deposition is-
A.Admissible
under Section 32
B.Admissible
under Section 33
C.Admissible
under Section 6
D.Inadmissible
in evidence
Answer: Option B
3.
For
protection under Section 124 of the Evidence Act, the communication is to be
made:
A.To
a public officer in official confidence
B.To
a pubic officer as an ordinary cause of his duties
C.To
a public officer as a routine matter
D.Either
A or B or C
Answer: Option A
4.
Under
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a public document can be proved by
A.Certified
copy
B.Oral
evidence
C.Affidavit
of giver by document
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option A
5.
Section
11 of the Indian Evidence Act enables a person charged with a crime to take
what is commonly called the plea of
A.Res
gestae
B.Lis
pendens
C.Alibi
D.Res-judicata
Answer: Option C
6.
Expert
opinion under Section 45 is
A.A
conclusive proof
B.Not
a conclusive proof
C.Supportive
and corroborative in nature
D.None
of these
Answer: Option C
7.
Under
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 facts of which the court will take judicial
notice
A.May
be proved
B.Must
be proved
C.Need
not be proved
D.None
of these
Answer: Option C
8.
The
burden of proving that the case of the accused comes within any of the General
Exceptions in the Indian Penal Code is upon the
A.Prosecution
B.Court
C.Accused
D.Investigating
police officer
Answer: Option C
9.
If
the digital signature of any subscriber is alleged to have been affixed to an
electronic record the fact that such digital signature is the digital signature
of the subscriber must be proved, except in the case of a
A.Secure
digital signature
B.Certified
digital signature
C.Computerised
digital signature
D.Official
digital signature
Answer: Option A
10.
Evidence
of 'character' includes evidence of
A.Reputation
only
B.Disposition
only
C.General
disposition and general reputation both
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option C
A desire a court to give judgement that he is entitled to certain land in the
possession of B, by reason of facts which he asserts, and which B denies, to be
true. Burden of Proof of these facts is on-
A.A
B.B
C.Both A and B
D.Decided by the court
Answer: Option A
12.
The content of the electronic
record may be proved under which section of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 65-A
B.Section 66-B
C.Section 67
D.Section 65-B
Answer: Option D
13.
If a Magistrate of a Court,
requiring to examine at his private residence, a record of a case in his Court,
he
A.May take charge of such
record without any permission
B.May take charge of such
record with prior permission of concerned District & Sessions Judge
C.May take charge of such
record with prior permission of concerned High Court
D.Can not take charge of such
record
Answer: Option D
14.
Admission has been defined as
a statement made by a party or any person connected with him, suggesting any
inference as to a fact in issue or relevant fact under certain circumstances,
under
A.Section 16 of Evidence Act
B.Section 17 of Evidence Act
C.Section 18 of Evidence Act
D.Section 19 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
15.
In which provision a judge
may ordered to produced a thing?
A.Section 311 Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973
B.Section 165 of Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
C.Section 276 Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973
D.Section 9 of Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Option B
16.
A is indicted for the murder
of B. C says that B when dying, declared that A had given B the wound of which
B died. Evidence is offered to show that, on a previous occasion, C said that
the wound was not given by A.
Which one of the following is correct?
The evidence is
A.Prohibited under section 52
of the Indian Evidence Act
B.Admissible under section
154 of the Indian Evidence Act
C.Admissible under section
153 of the Indian Evidence Act
D.Admissible under section
155 of the Indian Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
17.
Which of the following
questions cannot be asked in cross examination?
1. Questions which are scandalous, but having the bearing on the question
before the Court
2. In a proceeding of rape question as to the general immoral character of the
victim
3. In a Civil proceeding, question to the witness whether he is a professional
witness
4. Questions answer to which may tend directly or indirectly to incriminate the
witness
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1 and 4
Answer: Option A
18.
Whether the contents of
documents or electronic records, can be proved by oral evidence?
A.Yes
B.No
C.At the discretion of the
court
D.When the witness is an
expert witness
Answer: Option B
19. The
constitutional validity of which of the following section of Indian Evidence
Act, 1872 has been upheld by Supreme Court in State of Uttar Pradesh v. Deoman
Upadhyaya (AIR 1960 SC 1125):
A.27
B.32
C.73
D.119
E.None of the above
Answer: Option A
20.
Section 32 of Evidence Act
does not speak of which of the following kind of persons;
A.Person who is dead
B.Person who cannot be found
C.Person who is unwilling to
give evidence
D.Person who has become
incapable of giving evidence
Answer: Option C
21.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I |
List
II |
|
a. Section 60 |
1. Leading Question |
|
b. Section 141 |
2. Hostile Witness |
|
c. Section 154 |
3. Refresh Memory |
|
d. Section 159 |
4. Oral Evidence |
A.a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
B.a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
C.a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
D.a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
Answer: Option B
22. Assertion (A): Even for a child immediately after marriage, presumption of legitimacy
under section 112 of the Evidence Act would apply.
Reason
(R): The legislature which extended the period of
operation of the presumption by 280 days after dissolution of marriage did not
chose to exclude any minimum initial period of matrimony for the application of
the presumption.
Find the correct response:
A.Both A and R are true and R
is correct explanation of A
B.Both A and R are true and R
is not correct explanation of A
C.A is true but R is false
D.A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A
23.
A is tried for the murder of
B by intentionally shooting him dead. The fact that A, on other occasions shot
at B is relevant as it shows . . . . . . . .
A.Intention to shoot B
B.Motive to shoot B
C.Preparation to shoot B
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
24.
Admissions according to the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
A.May not be proved as
against the person who makes them
B.Can be proved by or on
behalf of the person who makes them
C.May not be proved as
against the person who makes them or his representative in interest
D.Can be proved by or on
behalf of the person who makes them or his representative in interest
Answer: Option D
25.
A person cannot deny a
statement previously made
A.Estoppel
B.Waiver
C.Denial
D.None of these
Answer: Option A
26. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1972 a declaration
made in course of business is admissible under:
A.Section 32 (7)
B.Section 32 (2)
C.Section 32 (4)
D.Section 32 (1)
Answer: Option B
27.
For which of the following
documents oral evidence cannot be given to remove any ambiguity?
A.Documents in reference to
existing fact
B.Documents which need
attestation by attesting witnesses
C.Documents containing
illegible characters, provincial or local expressions
D.A 'will' to which the
Indian Succession Act, 1925 applies
Answer: Option D
28.
Dying declaration must be
made by
A.The dying person in
hospital
B.The doctor who is treating
the deceased in hospital
C.The deceased before death
D.Nearest relative of the
deceased
Answer: Option C
29.
Communication made 'without
prejudice' are protected
A.Under Section 21 of
Evidence Act
B.Under Section 24 of
Evidence Act
C.Under Section 23 of
Evidence Act
D.Under Section 22 of
Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
30. A' is
tried for the murder of 'B' by intentionally shooting him dead. The fact that A
was in the habit of shooting at people with intent to murder them is
A.Relevant fact
B.Irrelevant fact
C.Neither relevant nor
irrelevant
D.Fact in issue
Answer: Option B
.
As per Section 64 of the
Evidence Act, documents must be proved by . . . . . . . .
A.Primary Evidence
B.Secondary Evidence
C.Primary or Secondary
Evidence
D.Oral Evidence
Answer: Option A
32.
"Presumption of
fact" under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
A.Is based on logic, human
experience and natural events and law of nature
B.Is based on provisions of
law
C.Cannot be ignored by the
court
D.Is of certain and uniform
position
Answer: Option A
33.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872 what number of witnesses will be required for the proof of any fact?
A.No Particular number
B.At least one eye witness
C.Two witnesses
D.Party and one Eyewitness
Answer: Option A
34. Which of
the following is not a public document?
A.Affidavit
B.Judgement of court
C.Arrest-warrant
D.Will
Answer: Option D
35.
Hostile witness is a witness
who:
A.Gives evidence in favour of
the party that called him
B.Does not speak the truth
C.Gives evidence in favour of
the opposite party
D.Refuses to give evidence
Answer: Option C
36.
Re-examination of a witness
A.Can be for the purposes of
filling what is left-over in examination-in-chief
B.Can be for the purposes of explaining
the matters referred to in cross examination
C.Can be for the purposes of
explaining the matters referred to in the examination-in-chief
D.All the above
Answer: Option B
37.
A' is on trial for the murder
of 'C'. There is evidence to show that 'C' was murdered by 'A' and 'B', and
that 'B' said-'A' and I murdered 'C'. As against 'A', this evidence is
A.Not to be taken into
consideration as the evidence is hearsay
B.To be taken into
consideration as it is direct
C.Not to be taken into
consideration as 'A' and 'B' are not being jointly tried
D.To be taken into
consideration as 'A' and 'B' are accomplices
Answer: Option C
38.
During examination-in-chief
of a case under Section 325 of Indian Penal Code, the victim denies the
prosecution case. Under what provision of Indian Evidence Act, the victim may
be asked leading questions by the Public Prosecutor?
A.Section 139
B.Section 144
C.Section 154
D.Section 165
Answer: Option C
39.
A' an accused makes a
confession to Superintendent of Police (S. P.). In this case the confession
made by 'A' is:
A.Admissible in evidence
against 'A'
B.Not admissible in evidence
against 'A'
C.Admissible in evidence or
not will depend upon the discretion of Court
D.Admissible in evidence
against 'A' because 'A' is an accused
Answer: Option B
40.
Which Section of Evidence Act
removes the bar of doctrine that 'husband and wife were one person' in law?
A.Section 118
B.Section 119
C.Section 120
D.Section 121
Answer: Option C
The material facts on which a party relies are called
A.Facta probantia
B.Facta probanda
C.Falsa demonstration on
nocet
D.Fences terroria
Answer: Option B
42.
Sections 101 to 111 of the
Evidence Act lays down provisions regarding who is to lead evidence and prove
the case. These rules are called rules relating to:
A.Burden of proof
B.Presumption of fact
C.Presumption of law
D.Presumptions
Answer: Option A
43.
Section 112 of Indian
Evidence Act, provides that a child would be treated as legitimate if after
dissolution of marriage, he/she has been born within:
A.180 days
B.270 days
C.280 days
D.300 days
Answer: Option C
44.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872, a court has no discretion regarding proof a fact in context of:
A.'May presume'
B.'Shall presume'
C.'Conclusive proof'
D.'Judicial Notice'
E.None of these
Answer: Option C
45.
The English doctrine of Res
Gestae?
A.Has no place in India
B.Has place in India
C.Has place in India and has
been incorporated under Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D.Has been incorporated under
Section 7 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Option C
46.
Opinions of experts are not
relevant
A.Upon a point of science
B.Upon a point of art
C.Upon a point of domestic
law
D.As to identity of
handwriting
Answer: Option C
47.
Match List-I with List-II:
|
List
I |
List
II |
|
a. Burden of Proof |
1. Section 75 |
|
b. Primary Evidence |
2. Section 133 |
|
c. Private Documents |
3. Section 101 |
|
d. Accomplice |
4. Section 62 |
A.a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
B.a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
C.a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
D.a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
Answer: Option B
48.
Under Evidence Act photo of a
building is
A.A primary evidence
B.A secondary evidence
C.No evidence
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
49.
A dying declaration:
A.Can form the sole basis of
conviction without any corroboration by independent evidence
B.Can from the basis of
conviction only on corroboration by independent witness
C.Cannot form the sole basis
of conviction under corroborated by independent witness
D.Only B and C are correct
Answer: Option A
50.
Presumption under Section
113A of Indian Evidence Act pertains to
A.Dowry death
B.Custodial death
C.Abatement of suicide by a
married woman
D.Absence of consent in
certain prosecutions for rape
Answer: Option C
Under which section, the facts proved under Sections 32 and 33 can be
contradicted as per Evidence Act?
A.Section 156
B.Section 157
C.Section 158
D.Section 159
Answer: Option C
52.
What is presumption as to
absence of consent in cases of rape under Section 114A of the Indian Evidence
Act?
A.A conclusive proof
B.The court may presume
C.The court shall presume
D.None of these
Answer: Option C
53.
Content of electronic records
are proved in accordance with the provisions of
A.Section 65-B Evidence Act
B.Section 67-A Evidence Act
C.Section 81-A Evidence Act
D.Section 85-A Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
54.
Where a document is executed
in several parts, there
A.Each part is a primary
evidence of the document
B.Each part cannot be primary
evidence of the document
C.Each counterpart is
secondary evidence
D.Only main part is primary
while rest is secondary evidence of the document
Answer: Option A
55.
Which of the following
observations is correct?
A.Section 91 and 92 of the
Indian Evidence Act may not be abrogated by special law
B.Where section 91 does not
apply section 92 also does not apply
C.The law of estoppel does
not override sections 91 to 94 of the Indian Evidence Act
D.Section 91 and 92 apply
even if there is no completed and binding contract
Answer: Option B
56.
The confession of an accused
is only relevant against him. Which of the following sections of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to this rule?
A.Section 23
B.Section 25
C.Section 28
D.Section 30
Answer: Option D
57.
The rule of construction
'Nocsitur a sociis' means:
A.The meaning of a word is to
be judged by the company it keeps
B.To reconcile
incompatibility between the specific and general words
C.No word on a statute is
superfluous
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
58.
Indian Evidence Act deals
privilege
A.As a right only
B.As a duty only
C.As a right and duty both
D.Neither as a right nor as a
duty
Answer: Option C
59.
Which of the following
section of the Evidence Act says that confession caused by inducement, threat
or promise is irrelevant?
A.Section 25
B.Section 26
C.Section 27
D.None of these
Answer: Option D
60.
Declaration in course of
business are admissible
A.Under section 32(1) of
Evidence Act
B.Under section 32(2) of
Evidence Act
C.Under section 32(4) of
Evidence Act
D.Under section 32(7) of
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
1.
The test of ascertaining the
burden of proof lies on the person who would fall if that part is not proved is
contained in Section . . . . . . . . of Evidence Act.
A.202
B.203
C.102
D.101
Answer: Option C
62.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I |
List
II |
|
a. The examination of a
witness by the party who calls him |
1. Re-examination |
|
b. Witness who lets down
the party who calls him |
2. Examination in Chief |
|
c. Examination of a witness
by the adverse party |
3. Hostile witness |
|
d. Question suggesting the
answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to deceive |
4. Leading questions |
|
5. Cross-examination |
A.a-2, b-5, c-3, d-4
B.a-2, b-3, c-5, d-4
C.a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
D.a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
Answer: Option B
63.
A sues B on an agreement and
gives B notice to produce it. At the trial, A calls for the document and B
refuses to produce it. A gives secondary evidence of its contents. B seeks to
produce the document itself to contradict the secondary evidence given by A.
A.He cannot do so
B.He can do so with the
consent of the other party
C.He can do so with the order
of the Court
D.Both B and C
Answer: Option D
64.
A rustic woman in
apprehension of assault and maltreatment makes a confession for murder of her
mother-in-law at the Village Panchayat. Whether this confession is admissible?
A.As extra-judicial
confession
B.Inadmissible due to
involuntariness
C.As a supporting evidence to
the fact deposed by the other witness
D.Partly admissible
Answer: Option B
65.
As per Section 120 of the
Evidence Act, which of the following has been stipulated that:
A.Wife of a party is not a
competent witness in a civil proceeding
B.Husband of a party is not a
competent witness in a civil proceeding
C.Wife of an accused is not a
competent witness in a criminal proceeding
D.None of the above
Answer: Option D
66.
Queen Empress v. Abdullah,
ILR 7 All 385 is related to which of the following under Section 8 of the
Indian Evidence Act?
A.Motive
B.Preparation
C.Conduct
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
67.
Under the law is evidence,
the term 'hearsay' is used with reference to what is:
A.Done
B.Written
C.Spoken
D.All of these
Answer: Option D
68.
All persons shall be
competent to testify unless the Court considers that they are prevented from .
. . . . . . . the questions put to them.
A.Understanding
B.Properly understanding
C.Rationally understanding
D.Comprehending
Answer: Option A
69.
When there is a question
whether an act was accidental or intentional or done with a particular
knowledge or intention, the fact that such act formed part of a series of
similar occurrences, in each of which the person doing the act was concerned.
A.Is relevant
B.Is irrelevant
C.Is material
D.Is immaterial
Answer: Option A
70.
Special provisions as to
evidence relating to electronic record were inserted in the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872:
A.In the form of Section 65B
w. e. f. 17.10.2000
B.In the form of Section 68B
w. e. f. 17.10.2000
C.In the form of Section 65B
w. e. f. 12.08.2002
D.In the form of Section 68B
w. e. f. 12.08.2002
Answer: Option A
"Judge's power to put question or order production" is given under
A.Section 165
B.Section 167
C.Section 141
D.Section 159
Answer: Option A
72.
Professional Communication'
between Advocate and his client-
A.Is not admissible in
evidence
B.Is a privilege
communication only until the contract continues
C.Is admissible in evidence
with consent of the client
D.Is not admissible until it
is legal
Answer: Option C
73.
Birth during subsistence of
marriage is a conclusive proof of legitimacy. This provision is found which
following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 110
B.Section 112
C.Section 112A
D.Section 121
Answer: Option B
74. Assertion (A): 'B' writes to his wife 'C' a letter, which contains
defamatory matters about 'D'. 'C' cannot be compelled to disclose this communication.
Reason
(R): Any communication made during subsistence of marriage
by a husband to his wife or vice-versa is protected as privileged
communication.
Select the correct answer:
A.Both A and R are true and R
is the correct explanation of A
B.Both A and R are true but R
is not the correct explanation of A
C.A is true but R is false
D.A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A
75.
The Evidence Act provides for
exception to the hear-say rule under:
A.Sections 17-39
B.Sections 32-33
C.Sections 34-35
D.All the above Sections
Answer: Option B
76.
Under Section 33 of the
Evidence Act, evidence of witness 'A' recorded in an earlier judicial
proceedings can be produced in another judicial proceeding where:
A.Witness 'A' is alive
B.Witness 'A' is alive and is
incapable of giving evidence
C.Criminal proceedings are
pending against the witness 'A'
D.There was no right but
opportunity of cross-examination of 'A' was granted in the first judicial
proceedings
Answer: Option B
77.
Estoppel deals with
A.Question of facts
B.Question of right
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option A
78.
Section 101, Indian Evidence
Act declares-
A.When the question is
whether any person is the owner of anything of which he is shown to be in
possession, the burden of proving that he is not the owner is on the person who
affirms that he is not the owner
B.Whoever desires any court
to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence
of facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist
C.Both A and B
D.Either A and B
Answer: Option B
79.
Delhi High Court issued
guidelines for the protection of witness in
A.Neelam Katara case (2003)
B.Naina Sahni case (2007)
C.Uphaar Cinema case (2005)
D.Parliament attack case
(2006)
Answer: Option A
80.
In criminal proceedings
against any person, the husband or wife of such person, shall be
A.Competent witness
B.Incompetent witness
C.Competent witness only if
they are major and with the consent of other
D.Competent witness only if
they are sane and with the consent of other
Answer: Option A
81.
To raise a presumption under
Section 108 of the Evidence Act as to the death of a person, it must be proved
that the person concern has not been heard of for the period of
A.3 years
B.7 years
C.10 years
D.20 years
Answer: Option B
82.
In cases of Wills, the period
of thirty years shall run
A.From the date of the will
B.From the date of the death
of the testator
C.From the date of
registration of the Will, if registered
D.Either A or B
Answer: Option A
83.
A confession to be
inadmissible under Section 25 of Evidence Act
A.Must relate to the same
crime for which he is charged
B.Must relate to another
crime
C.May relate to the same
crime or any other crime
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
84.
During examination in chief
or re-examination
A.Leading questions cannot be
asked under any circumstances
B.Leading questions on
certain matters can be asked without the permission of the court, as a matter
of right
C.Leading question on certain
matter can be asked only with the permission of the court
D.Only A and not B or C
Answer: Option C
85.
Which of the following state
of minds has not been expressly mentioned in section 14 of the Indian Evidence
Act;
A.Intention
B.Rashness
C.Motive
D.Ill-will
Answer: Option C
86.
Which of the following pieces
of evidence is not relevant under the Indian Evidence Act?
A.A is tried for the murder
of B. Evidence is given that A murdered C, that B knew that A had murdered C
and that B had tried to extort money from A by threatening to make his
knowledge public
B.A sues B upon a bond for
the payment of money. B denies the making of the bond. Evidence is given that B
required money at the time of the bond
C.A customs officer gives
evidence that the accused B made a confession of his crime to him
D.A is tried for the murder
of B by poison. Evidence is given that before the death of B, A procured poison
similar to that which was administered to B
Answer: Option C
87.
Section 112 of the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872, provides for:
A.Presumption of life
B.Presumption of marriage
C.Presumption of death
D.Presumption of legitimacy
Answer: Option D
88.
When one person has, by his
declaration, act or omission, intentionally caused or permitted another person
to believe a thing to be true and to act upon such belief, neither he nor his
representative shall be allowed, in any suit or proceeding between himself and
such person or his representative, to deny the truth of that thing is-
A.Proof
B.Primary proof
C.Etoppel
D.Oral evidence
Answer: Option C
89.
Under the Evidence Act, the
maps prepared by the TILR appointed by the Court as a Court Commissioner in a
suit for removal of encroachment and recovery of possession . . . . . . . .
A.Shall be presumed to be
accurate
B.May be presumed to be
accurate
C.Must be proved to be
accurate
D.Need no formal proof
Answer: Option C
90.
Which of the following
section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the production of documents and
translation of documents?
A.Section 156
B.Section 159
C.Section 157
D.Section 162
Answer: Option D
A Statement before the police officer in the course of investigation was that
the design was carried out according to plan; but no reference was made to
persons who were involved in murder or to the maker of statement himself:
A.Prosecution shall not be
allowed to prove this statement, being hit by section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
B.Prosecution may prove this
statement. It is not hit by section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
C.Only that part of the
statement may be proved which leads to discovery of a fact in consequence of
information received
D.None of the above is
correct
Answer: Option A
92.
Which of the following
statements do not hold true for the section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872?
A.The rule of Muhammadan Law
that a missing person is to be regarded as alive till the expiry of 21 Rs.
ninety years from the date of birth is superseded by this section
B.The rule of Hindu Law that
twelve years must elapse before an absent person, of whom nothing has been
heard during the period is superseded by this section
C.The burden of proof lies
with the person claiming that the death has not happened
D.None of these
Answer: Option D
93.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I |
List
II |
|
a. Presumption as to books,
maps and charts |
1. Section 85 of the Indian
Evidence Act |
|
b. Presumption as to power
of Attorney |
2. Section 87 of the Indian
Evidence Act |
|
c. Presumption as to
telephonic messages |
3. Section 88 of the Indian
Evidence Act |
|
d. Presumption as to plans
made by authority of government |
4. Section 83 of the Indian
Evidence Act |
A.a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
B.a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
C.a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
D.a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
Answer: Option C
94.
What is the nature of a
statement given in NARCO Test?
A.It is not an evidence
B.It is a scientific evidence
C.It is an oral evidence
D.It is a circumstantial
evidence
Answer: Option C
95.
Following is not the
exception to the rule of hearsay
A.Dying declaration
B.Res gestae
C.Medical Expert's Opinion
D.Confession
Answer: Option C
96.
Which of the following is
correct?
A.Rebuttable presumption
arises that a man is alive if it is shown that he was alive within thirty years
B.Rebuttable presumption
arises that a man is dead if it is proved that he has not been heard of for
seven years by those who would naturally have heard from him if he had been
alive
C.Both A and B
D.None of these
Answer: Option C
97.
Confession may be recorded by
A.Executive Magistrate
B.Judicial Magistrate having
Jurisdiction only
C.Judicial Magistrate with or
without Jurisdiction
D.Police officer having
conferred with Power of Judicial Magistrate
Answer: Option C
98.
Section 41, Indian Evidence
Act mainly deals with:
A.Property related cases of
Indian Nationals and executed in India
B.Homicide cases of Indian
Nationals and executed in India
C.Wills of Indian Nationals
and executed in India
D.None of them
Answer: Option C
99.
In a prosecution for rape,
questions in Chief-Examination of the prosecutrix as to her general immoral character
are:
A.Permissible
B.Not permissible
C.Permissible with the
special permission of the court
D.Permissible if the
prosecutrix consents to it
Answer: Option B
100.
A party to a suit can prove a
fact in issue,
A.By examining one witness
only in proof thereof
B.By examining not more than
three witnesses in proof thereof
C.By exarrurung any number of
witnesses in proof thereof unless the Court is satisfied that examination of
any particular witness is not relevant and is with the intent to delay the
trial
D.By examining any number
ofwitnesses in proof thereof and the Court cannot limit the number of witnesses
sought to be examined
Answer: Option C
.
An
inscription on a metal plate or stone-
A.Is
a fact
B.Is
a document
C.Is
an opinion
D.Is
a motive
Answer: Option B
2.
The
good faith of a sale by a client to an attorney is in question in a suit
brought by the client-
A.The
burden of proving the good faith of the transaction is on the attorney
B.The
burden of proving the good faith of the transaction is on the client
C.Both
A and B
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option A
3.
Exceptions
to the rule against admissibility of hearsay evidence are provided:
A.Under
Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
B.Under
Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C.Under
Section 34 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D.All
of the above
Answer: Option D
4.
A
person is competent to testify
A.If
he understands the question put to him
B.If
he is able to give rational awareness to those questions
C.If
has both A and B
D.If
has A only and not B
Answer: Option C
5.
Which
one of the following is not a secondary document?
A.A
photograph of an original, not compared, but the thing photographed was
original
B.A
copy transcribed from a copy and compared with that copy, not with the original
copy from which it was transcribed was compared with the original
C.Counterparts
of documents against the parties who did not execute them
D.Oral
accounts of contents of a document given by some persons who himself has seen
it
Answer: Option B
6.
Which
section of the Indian Evidence Act, provides provisions for refreshing memory?
A.Section-155
B.Section-158
C.Section-160
D.Section-159
Answer: Option D
7.
If
any advocate asks questions without reasonable ground the procedure court
should adopt:
A.Court
will not dictate them
B.Will
hear quietly
C.Report
to State Bar Council
D.Will
permittee to ask
Answer: Option C
8.
Indian
Evidence Act: A registered will can be proved
A.By
calling atleast two attesting witness
B.By
calling atleast one attesting witness
C.Not
necessary to call any attesting witness
D.Necessary
to call the registrar
Answer: Option B
9.
Zahira
Sheikh was prime witness in
A.Best
Bakery case (2004)
B.Best
Bakery retrial case (2006)
C.Sukh
Ram disproportionate assets case (2005)
D.Gujjar
killings case (2003)
Answer: Option B
10.
Under
Indian Evidence Act, the subject matters on which opinion of experts is
relevant, are:
A.Foreign
Law
B.Science
C.Finger
impressions
D.All
of these
Answer: Option D
11.
Palvinder Kaur v. State of
Punjab relates to which of the following?
A.Confession
B.Dying declaration
C.Entries in the books of
account
D.Relevancy of judgments
Answer: Option A
12.
As per preamble of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act is
A.To provide, define and
amend the law of evidence
B.To provide, consolidate the
law of evidence
C.To define and amend the law
of evidence
D.To consolidate, define and
amend the law of evidence
Answer: Option D
13.
Burden of proving that case
of accused comes within exception lies on . . . . . . . .
A.Prosecution
B.Accused
C.Magistrate
D.Any one
Answer: Option B
14.
Under which Section of the
Indian Evidence Act bad character of an accused is not relevant?
A.Section 54
B.Section 52
C.Section 53
D.Section 118
Answer: Option A
15.
"A" is charged with
travelling on a railway without a ticket, the burden of proving that he had a
ticket is on:
A.Prosecution
B.Accused
C.Complainant
D.Prosecution witness
Answer: Option B
16.
Section 115 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
A.Estoppel
B.Estoppel of tenant
C.Estoppel of acceptor of
bill of exchange, bailee or licensee
D.Evidence as to affairs of
state
Answer: Option A
17.
Ram, an accused wants to
submit carbon copy of the suicide note as secondary evidence. The original is
with the opposite party and he has failed to produce the same. The suicide was
not within the knowledge of the accused prior to the receipt of the carbon
copy. Which of the following statements will hold true for the case?
A.The evidence cannot be
admitted due to applicability of Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
B.The evidence cannot be
admitted because it fails to satisfy the requirements of Section 64 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C.The evidence cannot be
admitted because it fails to satisfy the requirements of Section 65 of Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
D.The evidence can be
admitted as it satisfies the requirements of both Section 64 and Section 65 of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Option D
18.
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
has been divided into . . . . . . . . Parts and . . . . . . . . Chapters.
A.2, 10
B.3, 11
C.4, 12
D.3, 12
Answer: Option B
19.
In which Section of the
Indian Evidence Act, the presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married
woman is given:
A.Section 109-A
B.Section 111-A
C.Section 112-A
D.Section 113-A
Answer: Option D
20.
Which one of the following
statements is correct?
A struck B on the neck with a knife and this was seen by C who exclaimed,
"A is killing B". C's exclamationis
A.Relevant because it was
spontaneous
B.Relevant because it forms
part of the transaction
C.Relevant because it is
relatable to the transaction
D.Relevant because it is a
fact in issue
Answer: Option B
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not exhaustive. Many rules relating to law of
evidence are contained in:
A.Code of Civil Procedure,
1908
B.Transfer of Property Act,
1882
C.Indian Succession Act, 1925
D.All the above
Answer: Option A
22.
In which Section of the
Indian Evidence Act, provision for 'Presumption as to genuineness of certified
copies' is given?
A.Section 78
B.Section 70
C.Section 79
D.Section 80
Answer: Option C
23.
The case of Sawal Das v.
State of Bihar is related to-
A.Plea of Alibi
B.Rule of Res-gestae
C.Rule of Estoppel
D.Rule of Res-judicata
Answer: Option B
24.
Which of the following
section of Indian Evidence Act deala with Evidence as to affairs of state-
A.Section 121
B.Section 122
C.Section 123
D.Section 124
Answer: Option C
25.
A person is prosecuted for
theft, evidence is sought to be produced to prove that the accused is a bad
character and suspect of theft on several occasions in the past:
A.Bad character is relevant
B.The evidence was admissible
C.The evidence was not
admissible
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
26.
A' prosecutes 'B' for
stealing a cow from him. 'B' is convicted. 'A' afterwards sues 'C' for the cow
which B had sold to him before his conviction. The judgment against B is:
A.Relevant as between A and C
B.Irrelevant as between A and
C
C.Is without jurisdiction
D.Is conclusive proof against
C
Answer: Option B
27.
Under which one of the
following sections of the Evidence Act the previous conviction of a person is
relevant
A.Explanation I to Section 14
B.Explanation II to Section
14
C.Explanation III to Section
14
D.Explanation IV to Section
14
Answer: Option B
28.
Under Section 32 of the
Evidence Act, a statement of a person who is dead, to be admissible:
A.May relate to the cause of
someone else's death
B.May relate to the cause of
his own death or someone else's death
C.Must relate to the cause of
his own death
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
29.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872 a declaration made in course of business is admissible under
A.Section 32(7)
B.Section 32(2)
C.Section 32(4)
D.Section 32(1)
Answer: Option B
30.
Section 91 of Evidence Act
A.Permits admission of oral
evidence to prove the contents of a document where the writing is a fact in
issue
B.Prohibits admission of oral
evidence to prove the contents of a document, where the writing is a fact in
issue
C.Prohibits admission of oral
evidence to prove the contents of a document where the writing is not a fact in
issue and is merely a collateral memorandum
D.Both B and C
Answer: Option B
Testimony of 'Hostile Witness' is to be:
A.Rejected outrightly
B.Partially rejected
C.Partially accepted
D.considered with caution and
be corroborated
Answer: Option D
32.
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
does not expressly mention about
A.Oral Evidence
B.Documentary Evidence
C.Secondary Evidence
D.Circumstantial Evidence
Answer: Option D
33.
Which one of the following
sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related to presumption as to
electronic agreement?
A.Section 81A
B.Section 85C
C.Section 88A
D.Section 85A
Answer: Option D
34.
Which one of the following is
not mentioned under Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872?
A.Intention
B.Good faith
C.Rashness
D.Conduct
Answer: Option D
35.
The question is, whether a
particular letter reached A. The fact that it was posted in due course and was
not returned through the dead letter office-
A.Are not relevant
B.Are irrelevant
C.Are relevant
D.None of these
Answer: Option C
36.
Protection under section 122
of Evidence Act
A.Can be waived by the
witness without the consent of the husband or wife
B.Can be waived by the
witness with the consent of husband or wife, only
C.Cannot be waived by the
witness under any circumstances
D.Either A or C
Answer: Option A
37.
The father of accused did not
support the prosecution during the trial that he told the witness that his son
(accused) had committed the murder. The statement of the witness would be in
the nature of:
A.Secondary evidence
B.Hearsay evidence
C.Res gestae
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
38.
Which of the following
statements is incorrect as per the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act?
A.An easement cannot be transferred
apart from the dominant heritage
B.A mere right to sue cannot
be transferred
C.If the donee dies before
acceptance, the gift is void
D.A gift comprising both
existing and future property is void ab initio
E.Both B and D
Answer: Option E
39.
Section 116 of the Evidence
Act is applicable to:
A.Movable Property
B.Immovable Property
C.Intellectual Property
D.All of the above
Answer: Option B
40.
Under Section 114 of Evidence
Act, 1872, Court may presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely
to have happened, regard being had to the common course of . . . . . . . .
A.Natural events
B.Human conduct
C.Public and private business
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
A is accused of a child's murder. The following facts are constructed in the
case:
1. An hour before the murder, A went to the place of murder with the child.
2. A alone returned home.
3. Collar of A's shirt found to be blood-stained.
The evidence which takes into account the above-mentioned facts is called:
A.Direct evidence
B.Circumstantial evidence
C.Real evidence
D.Secondary evidence
Answer: Option B
42.
Which one of the following
statements is not correct
A.A cheque upon a banker is a
document
B.A power-of-attorney is a
document
C.A writing containing
directions or instructions is a document
D.A map or plan, which is
intended not to be used as evidence, is a document
Answer: Option D
43.
The question is, whether 'A'
committed a crime at Kolkata on a certain day. The fact that, on that day 'A'
was at Chennai is relevant-
A.As a motive for fact in
issue
B.As introductory to fact in
issue
C.As preparation of relevant
fact
D.As it makes the existence
of fact issue highly improbable
Answer: Option D
44.
A leading question has been
defined as a question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes
or expects to receive, under
A.Section 140 of Evidence Act
B.Section 141 of Evidence Act
C.Section 142 of Evidence Act
D.Section 143 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
45.
Which of the following
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 gives the provisions regarding proof
as to electronic signatures?
A.Section 67
B.Section 67-A
C.Section 67-B
D.Section 67-C
Answer: Option B
46.
In a criminal trial, during
examination-in- chief or re-examination, leading questions
A.Cannot be asked under any
circumstances
B.Can be asked
C.Can be asked on certain
matters, but only with the permission of the court
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
47.
'Self-regarding' statements
A.Can be self-serving
statements
B.Can be self-harming
statements
C.Can be self-serving or
self-harming
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
48.
Which Section of the Indian
Evidence Act provides that contents of the document must be proved by primary
evidence?
A.Section 61
B.Section 62
C.Section 63
D.Section 64
Answer: Option D
49.
Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
Which option is not correct?
A.Expert witness ⇔ under section 45 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
B.Hostile witness ⇔ tinder section 154 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C.Dumb witness ⇔ under section 120 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D.Child witness ⇔ under section 118 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Option C
50.
Under which of the following
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, opinion as to digital signature has been considered
to be relevant?
A.Section 47A
B.Section 113B
C.Section 85A
D.Section 114A
Answer: Option A
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A 'Public document' is a document which
A.Has been executed by a
member of public
B.Has been made public
C.Has been addressed to the
public in general
D.Was executed by a public
servant in public capacity
Answer: Option D
52.
Photostat copy of family
settlement deed is allowed to be produced before the court as an
A.Primary evidence
B.Original evidence
C.Secondary evidence
D.Electronic evidence
Answer: Option C
53.
A party wants to set aside a
judgement under section 44 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In which of the
following circumstances can he do so?
A.In case the judgement was
passed by a superior Court
B.In case the person
challenging is a stranger to the proceedings
C.In case the judgement was a
result of gross negligence
D.All of these
Answer: Option A
54.
X sues Y for money due on a
bond. The execution of the bond is admitted, but Y says that it was obtained by
fraud, which X denies. The burden of proof is on
A.Y
B.X
C.The State
D.X and Y both
Answer: Option A
55.
How many years old electronic
record will be deemed to be proved, if it is produced from any custody which
the court in the particular case considers proper?
A.Five years
B.Thirty years
C.Twenty years
D.Ten years
Answer: Option A
56.
X had made some
communications to his wife Y during their marriage under Section 122 of the
Evidence Act, the correct proposition are:
1. X can be compelled to disclose such communications before the Court, if Y
consents, in any proceeding.
2. X can be compelled to disclose such communication whether Y consents or not
in any proceedings
3. Y can be compelled to disclose such communication whether X consents or not
in a divorce proceedings between them
4. Y may be permitted by Court, if deems fit, to disclose any such
communication in a criminal proceedings not between X and Y.
A.1, 3, 4 are not correct
B.1, 2, 3 are not correct
C.2, 3, 4 are not correct
D.2, 4 are not correct
Answer: Option D
57.
Which of the following
factors must be kept in mind by the Court while considering extra-judicial
confession?
A.To whom it is made
B.The time and place of
making it
C.The circumstances, in which
it is made
D.All of them
Answer: Option D
58.
The evidenciary value of a
retreated confession is that it
A.Still remains an evidence
B.Remains an evidence but a
weak evidence
C.Becomes a corroborative
evidence
D.Becomes 'other evidence'
from 'only evidence'
Answer: Option D
59.
Under which one of the
following sections of the Indian Evidence Act previous good character is
relevant in criminal cases
A.Section 18
B.Section 26
C.Section 49
D.Section 53
Answer: Option D
60.
Ram is charged with
travelling on a railway without a ticket. Under Evidence Act the burden of
proving that Ram had a ticket is on?
A.Ticket Checker
B.Prosecution
C.Police
D.Ram
Answer: Option D
1.
Secondary evidence does not
mean:
A.Certified copies
B.Copies made from original
by mechanical process
C.Copies made from the
original and compared
D.Document itself produced
for the inspection of the Court
Answer: Option D
62.
Contents of a document can be
proved by
A.Primary or secondary evidence
B.Is examining a witness who
has not seen the document
C.By taking extraneous
evidence into consideration
D.Without any evidence
Answer: Option A
63.
When a person has not been
heard for . . . . . . . . years by those who would naturally have heard of him
if he had been alive, the burden of proving that such a person is alive is
shifted to the person who affirms it
A.Thirty
B.Seven
C.Ten
D.Fourteen
Answer: Option B
64.
Under section 45 of Evidence
Act, which of the following have not been mentioned as points on which opinion
of experts is relevant;
A.Point of foreign law
B.Point of art
C.Point of domestic law
D.Point of science
Answer: Option C
65.
Section 110 of Evidence Act
in its operation
A.Is limited to immoveable
property
B.Is limited to moveable
property
C.Is not limited to
immoveable property and applies to moveable property as well
D.Is not limited to
immoveable property but applies only to certain moveable property
Answer: Option C
66.
To prove Call Details Report
(CDR) of the mobile calls, condition of which section is to be fulfilled
A.Section 63 Evidence Act
B.Section 65 Evidence Act
C.Section 65B Evidence Act
D.Section 67 Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
67.
Admissions under the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
A.Must be oral only
B.Must be in writing only
C.Can be either oral or in
writing
D.Must be both oral and in
writing
Answer: Option C
68.
Fill in the blanks:
"When the question is whether a man is alive or dead, and it is shown that
he was alive within . . . . . . . ., the burden of proving that he is dead is
on the person who affirms it."
A.3 years
B.7 years
C.20 years
D.30 years
Answer: Option D
69.
The question is, whether 'A'
committed a crime at Kolkata on a certain day. In answer to this question,
which of the following fact is relevant?
A.That 'A' was out that day
at Mumbai
B.That 'A' habitually goes to
Kolkata
C.That 'A' habitually commits
crime
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
70.
Which Section of the Evidence
Act lays down rules regarding relevant facts when the right or custom is in
question?
A.Section 12
B.Section 13
C.Section 14
D.Section 15
Answer: Option B
Which special provisions regarding proving of records have been inserted in the
Indian Evidence Act by Information Technology Act, 2000?
A.Section 56-A and Section
56-B
B.Section 65-A and Section
65-B
C.Section 55-A and Section
55-B
D.Section 35-A and Section
35-B
Answer: Option B
72.
Which of the following is
true as to the standard of proof in criminal and civil proceedings
A.In criminal proceedings the
standard is beyond reasonable doubt and also in civil proceedings
B.In criminal proceedings the
stand is beyond reasonable doubt while in civil proceedings it is 'upon the
balance of probabilities'
C.In criminal and civil
proceedings both it is 'upon the balance of probabilities'
D.In criminal proceedings it
is 'upon the balance of probabilities' while in civil 'beyond reasonable doubt'
Answer: Option B
73.
Burden of introducing
evidence under Section 102 of the Evidence Act-
A.Shifts at times
B.Never shifts
C.Constantly shifts
D.None of these
Answer: Option C
74.
Identification parade can be
held by
A.Police Officer only
B.Magistrate only
C.Public Servant only
D.Any person
Answer: Option B
75.
Which one of the following
terms has not been defined by the Indian Evidence Act under Section 3?
A.Court
B.Document
C.Evidence
D.Confession
Answer: Option D
76.
Section 90 of the Indian
Evidence Act applies to
A.Testamentary documents
B.Non testamentary documents
C.Testamentary and non
testamentary documents
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
77.
Which of the following
section prescribe the method by which signature can be proved?
A.Section 45, Indian Evidence
Act
B.Section 46, Indian Evidence
Act
C.Section 47, Indian Evidence
Act
D.Both A and B
Answer: Option D
78.
According to Section 3 of the
Indian Evidence Act "Courts" do not include
A.Judges
B.Magistrates
C.Arbitrators
D.Persons legally authorise
to take evidence
Answer: Option C
79.
Point out the incorrect
answer Evidence may be:
A.Direct and indirect
B.Primary and secondary
C.Oral and documentary
D.Procedural and substantive
Answer: Option D
80.
State of Maharashtra v. Damu
Gopinath Shinde relates to
A.Dying Declaration
B.Discovery of Evidence
C.Plea of Alibi
D.Estoppel
Answer: Option B
81.
Test Identifications Parade
is:
A.Substantive evidence
B.Corroborative evidence
C.No evidence
D.Hearsay evidence
Answer: Option B
82.
A confession made by the
accused person is relevant:
A.If it has proceeded from a
person in authority, unless made in the immediate presence of a magistrate
B.If it is made by a police
officer, unless made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate
C.If it is made to a
Magistrate provided the police officer is present
D.If it is made whilst he is
in custody of a police officer, and is made in the immediate presence of a
Magistrate
Answer: Option D
83.
Which of the following
statements is correct?
A.Section 91 of the Indian
Evidence Act does not apply to third parties
B.Section 91 of the Indian
Evidence Act does not apply to criminal cases
C.Section 91 of the Indian
Evidence Act does not apply if there is not completed contract
D.Section 91 of the Indian
Evidence Act does not apply to a contract if it cannot be specifically enforced
Answer: Option B
84.
Facts can be:
A.Physical facts
B.Psychological facts
C.Physical as well as
psychological facts
D.Only physical facts and not
psychological facts
Answer: Option C
85.
Admission' is defined under
Indian Evidence Act in:
A.Section 7
B.Section 3
C.Section 17
D.Section-Nil
Answer: Option C
86.
In which of the following
case, the Supreme Court rejected the Dying Declaration which was recorded by
the Magistrate but which was not signed by the declarant?
A.Harnam v. State of Uttar
Pradesh
B.State of Uttar Pradesh v.
Shishpal Singh
C.State of Punjab v. Bakshish
Singh
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
87.
Legal Advisor
A.Can disclose the
professional communication after death of his client
B.Can disclose the
professional communication after the relationship with the client has ended
C.Can disclose professional
communication if made in furtherance of any illegal purpose
D.Can disclose the
professional communication in all the above instances
Answer: Option C
88.
An attested document not
required by law to be attested:
A.Has to be necessarily
proved by examining an attesting witness
B.May be proved as if it was unattested
C.Is inadmissible in evidence
D.Can only be proved by
examining the executant
Answer: Option B
89.
Which Section of the Indian
Evidence Act makes the provision that there shall be no new trial on the ground
of improper admission or rejection of evidence?
A.Section 166
B.Section 165
C.Section 167
D.Section 161
Answer: Option C
90.
One of the question whether a
crime was committed by A on a certain day at Chandigarh the fact that on that
day he was at Calcutta is relevant because
A.This reflects the conduct
of the accused
B.Relevant as preparation
C.Inconsistent to facts in
issue
D.Relevant as motive
Answer: Option C
Which of the following combination are not correctly matched?
1. Voluntary and direct Acknowledgement of guilt - Admission
2. Self-exculpatory Confession of an accused - Cannot be used against
co-accused when confessing accused is not on trial
3. Extra judicial confession - Corroboration is must
4. Evidence of police officer - Can be take as expert opinion
Select the correct answer:
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.2 and 4
Answer: Option D
92.
Which of the following
statements is incorrect as per the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.An attested document not
required by law to be attested may be proved as if it was unattested
B.No fact of which the Court
will take judicial notice need be proved
C.Whenever the opinion of any
living person is relevant, the grounds on which such opinion is based are
irrelevant
D.The Court may presume that
an accomplice is unworthy of credit, unless he is corroborated in material
particulars
Answer: Option C
93.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872, what is not a Primary Evidence?
A.Document made by printing
B.Document made by
Lithography
C.Document made by
Photography
D.Document copies of common
original
Answer: Option D
94.
The general rule is that
leading questions cannot be asked during examination in chief. However, there
are some exceptions to this rule. Choose the exceptions:
A.Any question at the
discretion of judge
B.As to matters which are
introductory or undisputed
C.As to matters which have
already been sufficiently proved
D.Both B and C
E.None of the above
Answer: Option D
95.
The 'relationship' in Section
50 of the Evidence Act means:
A.Relationship by blood only
B.Relationship by blood or
marriage
C.Relationship by blood or
marriage or adoption
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
96.
Test identification parade
conducted during investigation of a case is admissible in evidence under which
of the Section of the Evidence Act?
A.Section 6
B.Section 7
C.Section 8
D.Section 9
Answer: Option D
97.
A dying declaration recorded
by the police officer in the form of FIR (First information Report) before the
death of author without obtaining certificate as to his mental fitness-
A.Cannot be treated as dying
dedaIttion
B.Cannot be read in evidence
C.Can be treated as dying
declaration
D.Cannot be admitted in
evidence
Answer: Option C
98.
Admissions made by a party
are evidence against
A.Privies in estate
B.Privies in law
C.Privies in blood
D.All the above
Answer: Option A
99.
Presumption as to genuineness
of certified copies of documents is stated in Section . . . . . . . . of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
A.77
B.78
C.79
D.80
Answer: Option C
100.
Admissions bind the maker in
so far as it relates to
A.Facts
B.Question of law
C.Both question of facts and
of law
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option A
Admissible evidence is thus that which is:
A.Relevant
B.Not
excluded by any rule of law or practice
C.Either
A or B
D.Both
A and B
Answer: Option D
2.
Which
sub-section of Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act makes the fact of
relations between the parties who are not alive, relevant:
A.Sub-section
(1)
B.Sub-section
(3)
C.Sub-section
(5)
D.Sub-section
(6)
Answer: Option C
3.
What
is judicial evidence?
A.It
is that portion of evidence in general which under the rules of legal procedure
is received in Courts as tending to establish the existence of a fact, involved
in an issue, submitted to judicial determination
B.It
is that portion of evidence in general which under the rules of legal procedure
is received in Courts as tending to establish non-existence of a fact, involved
in an issue, submitted to judicial determination
C.Either
A or B
D.None
of them
Answer: Option C
4.
Section
114 of the Evidence Act, 1872 provides for certain:
A.Presumptions
of facts
B.Rebuttable
presumptions of law
C.Irrebuttable
presumptions of law
D.Presumptions
of facts and law both
Answer: Option A
5.
Consider
the following statements:
1. The proceedings of the Parliament or State Legislatures of India are
judicially noticeable facts
2. Rules of the road on land or at sea are not judicially noticeable facts.
3. Criminal law in force in India is judicially noticeable fact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1
only
B.2
and 3
C.1,
2 and 3
D.1
and 3
Answer: Option D
6.
Under
Indian Evidence Act, the evidence given by a dumb witness will be regarded as
A.Written
evidence
B.Documentary
evidence
C.Oral
evidence
D.All
the above
Answer: Option C
7.
A
communication made to the spouse during marriage, under Section 122 of the
Evidence Act:
A.Remains
privileged communication after the dissolution of marriage by divorce or death
B.Does
not remain privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce or death
C.Does
not remain privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce but remains
privileged even after death
D.Remains
privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce but not so on after
death
Answer: Option A
8.
In
execution of a decree for the maintenance, salary of a person can be attached
to the extent of
A.One
fourth
B.One
third
C.Two
third
D.One
half
Answer: Option C
9.
Presumption
as to electronic agreements is provided in section . . . . . . . . . Of
Evidence Act
A.85
B.85-A
C.85-B
D.85-C
Answer: Option B
10.
The
presumption of law under Section 111A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not
applicable where an offence has been committed:
A.Under
Section 121, 121A, 122 or 123 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
B.Is
committed in a disturbed area and it is shown to the Court that the accused was
present in that area at that time
C.Is
committed against the State by fire arms or explosives in a disturbed area and
it is shown to the Court that the accused was present in that area at that time
D.Under
Section 151, 146 and 153 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
Answer: Option D
What is not true?
A.Witness may be
cross-examined as to previous statement in writing
B.Leading question may be
asked in cross-examination
C.Person called to produce
document can be cross-examined
D.Party calling the witness
may cross-examine him with the permission of Court
Answer: Option C
12.
Declaration as to custom are
admissible
A.Under section 32(1) of
Evidence Act
B.Under section 32(2) of
Evidence Act
C.Under section 32(4) of
Evidence Act
D.Under section 32(7) of Evidence
Act
Answer: Option C
13.
A dying declaration to be
admissible
A.Must be made before a
Magistrate
B.Must be made before the
police officer
C.May be made before a doctor
or a private person
D.May be made either before a
Magistrate or a police officer or a doctor or a private person
Answer: Option D
14.
Under Section 122 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872, immunity of privileged communications is available
to
A.Professionals
B.Magistrates
C.Judges
D.Husband and wife
Answer: Option D
15.
For conduct to be relevant
under section 8 of Evidence Act, it
A.Must be previous
B.Must be subsequent
C.May be either previous or
subsequent
D.Only subsequent and not
previous
Answer: Option C
16.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872 leading questions may generally be asked
A.In cross-examination
B.In examination in chief
C.In re-examination
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
17.
The provisions of section 126
of the Evidence Act dealing with confidentiality of professional communication
shall apply to;
A.Clerks of barristers
B.Servants of pleaders
C.Interpreters of barristers
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
18.
In criminal cases the fact
that the person accused is of good character
A.Is not a relevant fact
B.Is a relevant fact
C.Cannot be proved
D.Is conclusive fact
Answer: Option B
19.
In respect of digital
signature which of the following is a relevant fact?
A.That he himself recognizes
his signature before the Court
B.Any other person recognizes
his signature before the Court
C.The Court may direct that
certificate of certifying authority may be produced in the Court
D.Such digital signature is
not admissible in any proceeding before the Court
Answer: Option C
20.
Which section of Evidence Act
deals with Primary evidence?
A.Section 60
B.Section 62
C.Section 64
D.Section 65
Answer: Option B
In which case the Supreme Court held that material evidence and not the number
of witnesses has to be taken note to ascertain the truth of the allegations
made
A.Surendra Prasad Tiwari v.
State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 2005 SC 125
B.Syed Ibrahim v. State of
Andhra Pradesh, AIR 2006 SC 2908
C.Rajinder v. State of
Haryana, AIR 2006 SC 21
D.Jagdish Murav v. State of
Uttar Pradesh, AIR 2007 SC 35
Answer: Option B
22.
When the court has to form an
opinion as to electronic signature of any person, opinion of which of the
following persons is relevant fact under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.Opinion of such person
B.Opinion of controller
appointed under Information Technology Act, 2000
C.Opinion of certifying
authority which has issued the electronic signature certificate
D.Both B and C above
Answer: Option C
23.
Which of the following
statements is not correct?
A.No fact of which the Court
will take notice need be proved
B.Facts admitted need not be
proved
C.All facts and the contents
of documents may be proved by oral evidence
D.Oral evidence must be
direct
Answer: Option C
24.
An accused can be convicted
on the basis of his extra judicial confession only if it is made before
A.A credible person
B.A police officer
C.A Magistrate
D.None of these
Answer: Option A
25.
Under Section 27 of the
Evidence Act, in respect of confessional evidence
1. So much of the information as it relates distinctly to the fact discovered
in consequence of information received from the person accused may be proved
against him.
2. Person giving such information must be accused of an offence.
3. Accused need not be in the police custody.
4. Any statement of the accused confessing his guilt must be made in presence
of a Magistrate, in all cases, whether anything is discovered or not in
consequence of such statement, may be proved against him.
A.1 and 2 are true
B.2 and 3 are true
C.3 and 4 are true
D.1 and 4 are true
Answer: Option A
26.
The burden of proof means the
obligation to prove a fact. This is defined under
A.Section 201 of the Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 101 of the Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 200 of the Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 100 of the Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
27.
Indian Evidence Act: the
burden of proof in case of 'plea of alibi' is-
A.On the prosecution
B.On the accused
C.Investigation agency
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
28.
In which of the following
cases Supreme Court held that "Test identification parade is only an aid
to investigation. The practice is not born out of prudence"?
A.Siddharth Vashist @ Manu
Sharma v. State (NCT of Delhi), AIR 2010 SC 2352
B.Shivaji v. Nagendra, AIR
2010 SC 2261
C.S. Jaiswal v. Alok, AIR
2010 (NOC) 805
D.Sujata v. S. K. Behera, AIR
2010 (NOC) 812
Answer: Option A
29.
According to the Indian
Evidence Act, expert is a person who is especially skilled in:
A.Foreign law only
B.Scienceor art only
C.Identity of hand writing or
finger impressions only
D.Foreign law, or science, or
art, or hand writing, or finger impressions
Answer: Option D
30.
Whenever it is directed by
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that the court shall presume a fact, it shall
regard such fact as:
A.Proved, unless and until it
is disproved
B.Proved, unless and until it
is disproved or may call for proof of it
C.Proved
D.Proved and shall not allow
evidence to be given for the purpose of disproving it
Answer: Option A
The presumption under section 109 of Evidence Act as to certain human
relationship
A.Is obligatory and arises
irrespective of the lapse of time
B.Is permissive and operates
only for a period for which the state of things which are the subject matter of
presumption ordinarily lasts
C.Is obligatory and operates
only for a period for which the state of things which are the subject matter of
presumption ordinarily lasts
D.Either B or C
Answer: Option A
32.
Exceptions to the 'hearsay
rule' are provided in the Indian Evidence Act under:
A.Section 17 and Section 18
B.Section 32 and Section 33
C.Section 34 and Section 35
D.Section 36 and Section 37
Answer: Option B
33.
Facts discovered in
consequences of a joint information
A.Are not admissible and can
not be used against any of the accused person
B.Are admissible and can be
used against anyone of the accused person
C.Are admissible and can be
used against all the accused persons
D.Both A and C are correct
Answer: Option A
34.
Under which Section of the
Indian Evidence Act, admissibility of evidence shall be decided by the Judge?
A.Section 135
B.Section 136
C.Section 137
D.Section 138
Answer: Option B
35.
A borrows Rs. 200 from B and
executes a pronote in which the interest rate is given 1%. The pronote is
filled and proved in the court. A wants to lead evidence to the effect that the
interest settled between the parties was 0.5%
A.This evidence cannot be
allowed
B.This evidence can be
allowed
C.This evidence may be
allowed
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
36.
When shall the witness be
re-examined?
A.At the desire of adverse
party
B.At the desire of party
calling him
C.At the desire of the
Magistrate
D.At the desire of the Police
Officer
Answer: Option B
37.
Which Section of the Indian
Evidence Act is related to dowry death?
A.Section 113A
B.Section 113B
C.Section 114
D.Section 114A
Answer: Option B
38.
Provisions regarding
admissibility of electronic records are given under section . . . . . . . .
A.Section 65
B.Section 65A
C.Section 65B
D.All of above
Answer: Option C
39.
The principle that statement
of facts contained in a newspaper is merely hearsay has recently been
reiterated by the Supreme Court in
A.Laxmi Raj Shetty v. State
of Tamil Nadu
B.Joseph M. Puthussery v. T.
S. John
C.Quamarul Ismam v. S. K.
Kanta
D.Baburao Bagaji Karemore v.
Govind
Answer: Option B
40.
Section 92 of Evidence Act is
applicable to
A.Disputes between the
parties to the instrument only
B.Disputes between a party to
the instrument and a stranger
C.Disputes between two
strangers where the document is in question
D.All the above
Answer: Option A
A' prosecuted 'B' for theft and wishes the court to believe that 'B' admitted
the theft to 'C'. Who shall have to prove the admission?
A.C
B.B
C.A
D.Either B or C
Answer: Option C
42.
During the cross examination
of the witness as to previous statements made before the police almost all
contradictions or omissions were brought on record, which were portions from
the statements made before the police that were not deposed before the court.
Which of the following statements will apply to the case?
A.The credibility of the
witness has been impeached under section 148 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
B.The credibility of the
witness has been impeached under section 145 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C.The credibility of the
witness has not been impeached because the con tradictions were not as
contemplated under section 145 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D.The credibility of the
witness has not been impeached because the protection under section 154 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 will apply
Answer: Option C
43.
Which of the following
admission is no evidence:
A.An admission by one of the
several defendants in a suit against another defendant
B.An admission by a guardian
ad litem against a minor
C.An admission by one of the
partners of a firm against the firm or other partners
D.Only A and B
Answer: Option D
44.
Which one of the following
statements is correct?
The 'alibi' under section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is decided on the
basis of
A.Preponderance of
probability
B.Preponderance of
probability beyond reasonable doubt
C.Preponderance of
possibility beyond reasonable doubt
D.Preponderance of higher
probability or improbability as well as beyond reasonable doubt
Answer: Option D
45.
Oral evidence given in a
Court:
A.May be presumptive
B.Must be indirect
C.May be deductive
D.Must be direct
Answer: Option D
46.
Which of the following
provisions of the Indian Evidence Act was omitted by the Amendment Act of 2002?
A.Section 155(2)
B.Section 155(3)
C.Section 155(4)
D.Section 155(5)
Answer: Option C
47.
Which is not a precondition
to raise a obligatory presumption uls 113-B of The Evidence Act?
A.The accused is being tried
for the offence under section 4 of the Dowry Prohibition, 1961
B.The deceased woman was
subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relative
C.Such cruelty or harassment
was for, or in connection with any demand for dowry
D.Such cruelty or harassment
was soon before her death
Answer: Option A
48.
Whether evidence of
non-existence of a fact-in issue may be given?
A.Yes
B.No
C.Depends upon the wishes of
party
D.Depends upon permission of
court
Answer: Option A
49.
The question is, whether A
owes B Rs. 10,000. The facts that A asked C to lend him money, and D said to C
in A's presence and hearing-"I advise you not to trust A, for he owes B
Rs. 10,000", and that A went away without making any answer is a:
A.Relevant fact
B.Irrelevant fact
C.Fact in issue
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
50.
Mark the incorrect statement.
A court may take the assistance of expert for forming opinion on point of
A.Foreign law
B.Art
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option D
In which of the following 'Accomplice' is declared competent witness?
A.Section 114 of the Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 111 of the Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 123 of the Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 133 of the Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option D
52.
Whether in criminal
proceedings the previous good character of an accused person is relevant:
A.No
B.Yes
C.At the discretion of the
court
D.Depends on the offence
alleged
Answer: Option B
53.
A confession made by a
conspirator involving other members is relevant against the co-conspirator
jointly tried with him and is admissible
A.Under section 8 of Evidence
Act
B.Under section 10 of
Evidence Act
C.Under section 30 of
Evidence Act
D.Both B and C
Answer: Option C
54.
What type of secondary
evidence relating to public documents may be given?
A.Oral evidence about
contents
B.Certified copy of the
document
C.Photostat copy
D.Written admission
Answer: Option B
55.
The Court of Magistrate of
the First Class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term-
A.Not exceeding three years
or a fine not exceeding Rs. 10,000
B.Not exceeding one year or a
fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000
C.Not exceeding three years
or a fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000
D.Not exceeding seven years
or a fine prescribed under the code
Answer: Option A
56.
Which of the following is not
correct for relevancy of evidence to prove conspiracy?
A.There must be reasonable
ground to believe that two or more persons have entered into a conspiracy
B.The act in question must
have been done after the time when the intention to conspire was first
entertained by any of them
C.The act must have been done
in reference to their common intention
D.It can also be used in
favour of the other party or for the purpose of showing that such a person was
not a party to the conspiracy
Answer: Option D
57.
What is not the necessary
ingredient for attracting the provisions of Section 27 of Evidence Act?
A.The person must be an
accused of an offence
B.Male or female
C.He should give information
D.Discovery of any fact in
consequence of information
Answer: Option B
58.
To an answer to a court
question, the adverse party
A.Has a right to cross-examination
as a matter of right
B.Has a right to
cross-examine only with the permission of the court
C.Has no right to
cross-examine the witness
D.Either A or C
Answer: Option B
59.
Under which of the following
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, the evidence of a dumb witness is taken
into consideration?
A.Section 116
B.Section 117
C.Section 118
D.Section 119
Answer: Option D
60.
Indian Evidence Act: Which of
the following is not a competent Witness?
A.Deaf
B.Minor
C.Mentally retarded
D.Dumb
Answer: Option C
1.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I |
List
II |
|
a. Noor Mohd. v. Imtiaz
Ahmad |
1. Section 6 of the Indian
Evidence Act |
|
b. Pratap Singh v. State of
Punjab |
2. Section 7 of the Indian
Evidence Act |
|
c. Sardual Singh v. State
of Bombay |
3. Section 8 of the Indian
Evidence Act |
|
d. Raghunath v. State of
Uttar Pradesh |
4. Section 17 of the Indian
Evidence Act |
A.a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B.a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
C.a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
D.a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
Answer: Option A
62.
A intentionally and falsely
leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A, and thereby induces Bto buy
and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of A, and A seeks to
set aside the sale on the ground that, at the time of sale, he had no title.
A.A must not be allowed to
prove his want of title
B.A must be allowed to prove
his want of title
C.The court will decide
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
63.
Whether a judge can ask
questions during examination of witness?
A.No
B.Yes
C.Judge should sit as a spectator
during recording of evidence
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
64.
Which of the following Facts
is relevant under Section 10 of the Evidence Act?
A.Those facts which are
introductory in nature
B.Those facts which help to
certain identification and article of a person
C.Those facts which depict
relation between parties
D.Those facts from which
inference of conspiracy can be traced
Answer: Option D
65.
Which of the following is not
a 'fact';
A.Mental condition
B.Relation of things
C.State of things
D.None of the above
Answer: Option D
66.
"A confession even
consists of conversation to oneself, for it is not necessary for the relevancy
of a confession that it should be communicated to some other person", was
held in the case of:
A.Shankaria v. State of
Rajasthan
B.Boota Singh v. State of
Punjab
C.Sahoo v. State of Uttar
Pradesh
D.Nishikant Jha v. State of
Bihar
Answer: Option C
67.
Which one of the following
statements is correct?
A.An admission by a guardian
ad litem against a minor is evidence
B.Admission on a point of law
made by a pleader in court on behalf of the client is evidence
C.Admission by one of the
several defendants in a suit against another defendant is evidence
D.Admission of fact made by a
pleader in court on behalf of his client is evidence
Answer: Option D
68.
The principle on which a
dying declaration is admissible under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
indicated in the legal maxim.
A.Actori incumbit onus
probandi
B.Nemo moriturus proesumitur
mentiri
C.Dormiunt leges aliquando,
munquam moriuntur
D.Fatetur facinus qui
judicium fugit
Answer: Option B
69.
A sues B for land of which B
is in possession, and which, as A asserts, was left to A by the will of C, B's
father. If no evidence were given on either side, B would be entitled to retain
his possession. Applying Section 102 of the Indian Evidence Act:
A.The burden of proof is on A
B.The burden of proof is on B
C.The burden of proof is on C
D.None of these
Answer: Option A
70.
Which of the following is not
considered as evidence?
A.Affidavit
B.State of witnesses
C.Electronic record produced
before court
D.Document produced before
court
Answer: Option A
What is estoppel?
A.Prohibition from proving
certain facts
B.Prohibition from claiming
property
C.To stop a person
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
72.
A' is charged with travelling
on a railway without ticket. The burden of proof is on him according to Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 under
A.Section 102
B.Section 106
C.Section 107
D.Section 108
Answer: Option B
73.
The defence of alibi is best
because:
A.If the accused was not
there, when the deceased was murdered, he could not have murdered her
B.Once the pleas of alibi is
raised no other defence is open to the prosecution
C.It leaves room for no other
defence for the accused
D.None of them
Answer: Option A
74.
When there is no need of
presumption?
A.The intention of the
legislature is not clear
B.The intention of
legislature is clear
C.It can be used in any
condition
D.All of these
Answer: Option B
75.
Confession made by an accused
to a police officer is admissible under Indian Evidence Act under
A.Section 25
B.Section 26
C.Section 27
D.Section 28
Answer: Option C
76.
Estoppel' has been defined
under
A.Section 115
B.Section 114
C.Section 117
D.Section 130
Answer: Option A
77.
How much old digital
signature on electronic records, court can presume as valid?
A.2 years
B.3 years
C.5 years
D.12 years
Answer: Option A
78.
Section 129 of Evidence Act,
1872 states that no one shall be compelled to disclose to the court any
confidential communication which has taken place between . . . . . . . .
A.Teacher and Student
B.Company and its client
C.Legal professional advisor
and his client
D.Landlord and tenant
Answer: Option C
79.
The question is whether 'A'
committed murder of 'Z' on a particular day at Amarawati? The fact that on that
day 'A' was at Delhi:
A.Is relevant
B.Is not relevant
C.Is irrelevant
D.None of these
Answer: Option A
80.
The fact of which the court
will take judicial notice under Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
A.Need to be proved
B.Is optional to be proved
C.Need not to be proved
D.Is better to be proved
Answer: Option C
Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 for proving execution of a registered will
A.Be necessary to call at
least two attesting witnesses
B.Be necessary to call at
least one attesting witness
C.Be necessary to call the
executant
D.Be necessary to call the
registrar
Answer: Option B
82.
Which is not the essential of
the Doctrine of Res Gestae?
A.The statement made should
not be an opinion and must be a statement
B.The statements should be
made by the participants of the transaction
C.The statements should have
enough information to explain or brief about the incident
D.The statement must be as
per the advice of legal expert
Answer: Option D
83.
A will is required to be
proved by calling at least one attesting witness
A.When it is registered
B.When it is unregistered
C.When it is admitted
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
84.
A tenant or licencee under
section 116 of Evidence Act is estopped from denying the title of landlord
A.During the continuance of
tenancy
B.After the creation of
tenancy or licence
C.After the surrender of
possession under tenancy or licence
D.All the above
Answer: Option A
85.
What is a private document?
A.Document executed in a
family
B.Secret document
C.Document in custody of a
private person
D.Document other than a
public document
Answer: Option D
86.
By which of the following
ways under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the credit of a witness may be impeached
by adverse party?
A.By the evidence of persons
who testify that they, from their knowledge of the witness, believe him to be
unworthy of credit
B.By proof that the witness
has been bribed, or has accepted the offer of bribe
C.By proof of former
statements inconsistent with any part of his evidence which is liable to be
contradicted
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Answer: Option D
87.
A is arrested by police and
accused of murder of B. During investigation A voluntarily agrees to undergo
narco-analysis and therein he confesses to have murdered B.
A.The confession is relevant
and can be sole basis of conviction
B.The confession is
irrelevant
C.The confession is relevant
but requires corroboration
D.Only that much of A's
statement can be used as leads to discovery of a fact
E.None of the above
Answer: Option D
88.
The question is whether A is
a High Court Judge. If he is working as a High Court judge, his warrant of
appointment
A.Need to be proved
B.Need not be proved
C.Oral evidence has to be
given
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
89.
The provision "hostile
witness" is provided under which of the following section of the Indian
Evidence Act?
A.Section 154 Evidence Act
B.Section 153 Evidence Act
C.Section 155 Evidence Act
D.Section 145 Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
90.
An expert is competent to
testify on which of the following?
A.Matters of Science
B.Questions of Art
C.Foreign Law
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
Exception to admissibility of Hearsay evidence is
A.Section 62, Evidence Act
B.Section 32, Evidence Act
C.Section 21, Evidence Act
D.Section 72, Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
92.
The estoppel in section 115
of Evidence Act
A.Is an estoppel by record
B.Is an estoppel by deed
C.Is an estoppel by pais
D.All the above
Answer: Option C
93.
A fact neither proved nor
disproved is known as-
A.Proved
B.Disproved
C.Not proved
D.Conclusive proof
Answer: Option C
94.
The motives are covered
under-
A.Section 7 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
B.Section 8 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
C.Section 9 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
D.Section 10 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Option B
95.
The case Dudhnath Pandey v.
State of Uttar Pradesh is related to
A.Res Gestae
B.Plea of alibi
C.Admission
D.Accomplice
Answer: Option B
96.
Which of the following cases
can the Court make presumptions?
A.Property in name of
co-sharers. Presumption that it is ancestor's property
B.A registered sale deed.
Presumption of genuineness
C.A letter sent by registered
post, is not returned to sender within 15 days. Presumption that the letter has
been delivered
D.Delivery of post card by
the post office. Presumption that it was send by the sender
Answer: Option B
97.
Which section of Indian
Evidence Act is based on English Doctrine of Res Gestae
A.5
B.6
C.7
D.8
Answer: Option B
98.
Section 27 of the Evidence
Act applies:
A.When the person giving
information is an accused but not in police custody
B.When the person giving
information is an accused and is in police custody
C.When the person is in
police custody but not an accused
D.When the person is neither
in police custody nor an accused
Answer: Option B
99.
In the criminal trials, the
onus is on the accused to prove that his case falls in
A.Any of the general
exception
B.Any of special exception
C.Any of the proviso to any
provisions
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
100.
Admissibility of the evidence
under section 122 of Evidence Act has to be adjudged
A.In the light of the status
on the dale when the communication was made
B.In the light of the status,
on the date when the communication is sought to be tendered in court
C.In the light of the status,
on the date when the evidence is to be given in the court
D.Either A or B or C
Answer: Option A
Facts, which, though not in issue, are so connected with a fact in issue as to
form part of the same transaction, whether they occurred at the same time and
place or at different times and places:
A.Are
irrelevant
B.Are
relevant
C.Are
partly relevant
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option B
2.
Identification
of the accused through his photograph is:
A.Admissible
in evidence
B.Not
admissible in evidence
C.Not
relevant in evidence
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option A
3.
Who
amongst the following is an accomplice?
A.A
prostitute
B.A
raped girl
C.A
spy
D.A
person giving bribe under coercion
Answer: Option A
4.
In
law, a man is presumed to be dead if he is not heard of as alive for
A.4
years
B.7
years
C.10
years
D.15
years
Answer: Option B
5.
All
statements which the court permits or requires to be made before it by witness
in relation to matters of fact under inquiry is/are . . . . . . . .
A.Primary
evidence
B.Oral
evidence
C.Hearsay
evidence
D.Both
A and B
Answer: Option B
6.
A
is accused of murdering B at his house. A raises the defense that he was not in
the town at the time when B is alleged to have been murdered. Under which of
the following provisions of the Evidence Act, burden of proof would be on A to
prove his defense?
A.Section
103
B.Section
104
C.Section
105
D.Section
106
Answer: Option A
7.
Secondary
evidence cannot be led:
A.When
original is in the possession of the other party
B.Original
is of such nature that it is not easily movable
C.When
original is in possession of the person who is out of reach and not subject to
processes of the court
D.When
original is in possession of the person who wants to adduce secondary evidence
Answer: Option D
8.
Which
of the following statement is not correct?
A.The
non-examination of the doctor endorsing the dying declaration, does not always
affect the evidentiary value of the dying declaration
B.Non-signing
of the dying declaration by a literate declarant unable to sign, does not
render the veracity of dying declaration doubtful
C.When
the relatives of the declarant are present during dying declaration, the dying
declaration would not be relevant
D.The
statement recorded in F. I. R. (First information Report) may be treated as
dying declaration
Answer: Option C
9.
"An
accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person and a
conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the uncorroborated
testimony of an accomplice."
Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act enunciates the
aforesaid principle?
A.Section
131
B.Section
132
C.Section
133
D.Section
134
Answer: Option C
10.
Under
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 reports published in Newspaper are
A.Primary
evidence and its contents are admissible in evidence without any proof
B.Secondary
evidence and its contents are not admissible in evidence without proper proof
of the contents under the Evidence Ac
C.Neither
Primary nor secondary evidence
D.No
evidence at all
Answer: Option D
Which one of the following is irrelevant?
A.Admission made by a party
interested in subject matter
B.Admission made by an agent
of a party to the proceedings
C.Admission made by a party
having pecuniary interest
D.Admission made by a party
who has not been expressly referred to by a party to suit
Answer: Option D
12.
Mark the correct statement.
A.The questions which are put
only to test the credibility of a person will not be allowed as
interrogatories, although they may be asked in cross-examination
B.Interrogatories can be
administered only to a party to a suit and not to a witness, whereas
cross-examination can be of any person, parties and witness alike
C.A party filing affidavit in
reply to interrogatories can neither cross-examine nor adduce evidence to
contradict it, as it is a conclusive proof
D.All these
Answer: Option D
13.
Which of the following facts
need not be proved?
A.Oral evidence
B.Documentary evidence
C.Facts taken Judicial notice
by Court
D.Relevant facts
Answer: Option C
14.
"The statement in order
to constitute a 'confession' under the Indian Evidence Act, must either admit
in terms the offence or at any rate substantially all facts which constitute
the offence."
The above view was expressed by the Privy Council in which one of the following
cases?
A.John Makin v. Attorney
General
B.Pakla Narain Swamy v.
Emperor
C.H. H. B. Gill v. King
Emperor
D.Q. E. v. Abdullah
Answer: Option B
15.
Only such facts are made
relevant by the Evidence Act as are encompassed by:
A.Section 5 to Section 55 of
the Evidence Act
B.Section 5 to Section 32 of
the Evidence Act
C.All the Sections of the
Evidence Act
D.Only such facts which can
be proved as per Section 59 and Section 60 of the Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
16.
A is tried for the murder of
B by poison. The fact that before the death of B, A produced poison similar to
that which was administered to B, is
A.Not relevant
B.Relevant
C.Partly relevant
D.Neither relevant nor
irrelevant
Answer: Option B
17.
Court can permit leading
questions during examination in chief or re-examination
A.If they refer to the
matters which are introductory
B.If they refer to the
matters which are undisputed
C.If they refer to the matter
which are sufficiently proved
D.If they refer to either A
or B or C
Answer: Option D
18.
To make the criminal harmless
by supplying him those things which he lacks and to cure him to those drawbacks
which made him to commit crime is known as
A.Expiatory or penance theory
of punishment
B.Deterrent theory or
preventive theory of punishment
C.Reformative or
rehabilitative or corrective theory of punishment
D.Retributive theory of punishment
Answer: Option C
19.
A Judge in India
A.Is not empowered to put
questions on his own to the witnesses or to the parties
B.Is empowered to put
questions on his own to the witnesses or to the parties according to his sweet
will
C.Is empowered to put
questions on his own to the witnesses or to the parties in order to discover or
to obtain proper proof of relevant facts
D.Is not empowered to put
questions on his own to the witnesses or to the parties as india follows common
law doctrines
Answer: Option C
20.
For dying declaration to be
admissible in evidence which one of the following is not necessary?
A.That it should relate to
the cause of death of the person making
B.That the person making the
statement was under the expectation of death
C.That it relates to the
circumstances of the transaction with resulted in his death
D.All of the above
Answer: Option B
Which question shall not be asked in examining a witness?
A.Which is intended to insult
B.Which is intended to annoy
C.Which appears needlessly
offensive
D.All of the above types of
questions
Answer: Option D
22.
Which one of the following
statements is correct?
A "Dying Declaration" made under section 32 of the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872 is subject to the control of
A.Section 164 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure 1973
B.Section 161 and 162 of the
Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
C.Section 52 and 54 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D.Section 158 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Option D
23.
Under the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872, what is not evidence in the following?
A.Personal knowledge or
observation of a judge about the case during hearing
B.Statement of a dumb witness
C.Documents produced for the
inspection of the court
D.Electronic C. D.
Answer: Option A
24.
Which one of the following
provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been amended by the Criminal
Law (Amendment) Act, 2013?
A.Section 145
B.Section 146
C.Section 147
D.Section 148
Answer: Option B
25.
In a suit to which the bank
is not a party, the contents of a book of a bank can be proved:
A.By compelling an officer of
the bank to produce the said books
B.By tendering in evidence a
copy of the said contents certified by the Bank in terms of Sections 2(8), 2A
and 4 of the Bankers Books Evidence Act, without compelling the presence as a
witness of the officer of the bank
C.By compelling the presence
of the person in charge of computer system of the bank to prove certified
copies of the printouts of the data stored on the said computer system
D.By examining the principal
accountant or branch manager of the bank
Answer: Option B
26.
Confession before the police-
A.Will be proved
B.Will not be proved
C.Will be considered
confession
D.Will not be considered
confession
Answer: Option B
27.
Burden of proving the
existence of exceptions is put on accused by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
under Section
A.102
B.103
C.105
D.106
Answer: Option C
28.
A' is tried for the murder of
'B'. He takes the plea of self-defence but the evidence adduced by him is not
sufficient to put his case under this exception, although it is enough to
create doubt whether the charge against him has been positively proved. In this
case
A.A' is guilty of murder
because he has not discharged his burden of proof
B.A' is guilty of culpable
homicide not amounting to murder because his case falls under exceptions to
section 300 Indian Penal Code
C.A' has committed no offence
because self-defence is a recognized ground of exemption from criminal
liability
D.A' is entitled to acquittal
as the prosecution has failed to prove his guilt beyond reasonable doubt
Answer: Option D
29.
The depositions relevant
under Section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, but is subject to the control of:
A.Section 156 of the Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 157 of the Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 158 of the Indian
Evidence Act
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
30.
A, is accused of receiving
stolen goods knowing them to be stolen. The above is the illustration of
A.Section 8 of the Evidence
Act
B.Section 12 of the Evidence
Act
C.Section 14 of the Evidence
Act
D.Section 13 of the Evidence
Act
Answer: Option C
Section 62 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
A.Primary evidence
B.Secondary evidence
C.Proof of documents by
primary evidence
D.Cases in which secondary
evidence relating to documents may be given
Answer: Option A
32.
A person summoned to produce
a document when produces the document then-
A.He becomes a witness
B.He cross-examined by both
the parties
C.He is cross-examined with
the permission of the court
D.He does not become witness
and cannot cross-examined unless and until he is called as a witness
Answer: Option D
33.
Which of the following
section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been amended by the Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act, 2013?
A.Section 32
B.Section 55
C.Section 119
D.Section 124
Answer: Option C
34.
Which one of the following
statements is correct?
The latest approach toward the evidentiary value of "identification
parade", as laid down by the Supreme Court in Anik Kumar v. State of Uttar
Pradesh is that it is
A.Mandatory evidence
B.Evidence which may be
dispensed with
C.Corroborative evidence in
criminal proceedings
D.Evidence to support or to
rebut any fact before the court in criminal proceedings
Answer: Option D
35.
Provision of Section 6 of the
Evidence Act relating to relevancy of facts forming part of some transaction,
is based on doctrine of:
A.Res subjudice
B.Estoppel
C.Res gastae
D.Hearsay evidence
Answer: Option C
36.
Which one of the following
statements is not true?
According to Section 5 of the Evidence Act, evidence may be given in any suit
or proceeding of the
A.Existence of every fact in
issue
B.Non existenceof every fact
in issue
C.Those facts declared
relevant under the various provisions of the Evidence Act
D.Those factswhich the
parties think are relevant
Answer: Option D
37.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872 power of judge to put questions or order of production of document or
thing has been provided under
A.Section 163
B.Section 165
C.Section 161
D.Section 166
Answer: Option B
38.
Which Section of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 is founded upon the doctrine laid down in 'Pickard v.
Sears'?
A.Section 6
B.Section 32
C.Section 115
D.Section 167
Answer: Option C
39.
Husband and wife
A.Are competent witnesses
against each other in matrimonial cases
B.Are not competent witnesses
against each other as they are one person in law
C.Are competent witnesses
against each other in civil cases only
D.Are competent witnesses
against each other in civil as well as criminal cases
Answer: Option D
40.
Section 27 control
A.Section 24 of Evidence Act
B.Section 25 of Evidence Act
C.Section 26 of Evidence Act
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
41.
A Prosecutes B for stealing a
cow from him. B is convicted. A afterwards, sues C for the cow, which B had
sold to him before his conviction. What will be the importance of the judgment
of B's conviction between the suit of A and C?
A.Relevan
B.Irrelevant
C.Conclusive proof
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
42.
In a 'prosecution for rape,
where sexual intercourse by the accused is proved and the woman states in her
evidence before the court that she did not consent,
A.The court may presume that
she did not consent
B.The court may regard her
evidence as conclusive proof that she did not consent
C.The court may require
further proof that she did not consent
D.The court shall presume
that she did not consent
Answer: Option D
43.
The following need not be
proved
A.Admitted facts and
Judicially noticeable facts
B.Confession to police
C.Legitimacy of child
D.Relevant fact
Answer: Option A
44.
A statement, [oral or
documentary or contained in electronic form], which suggests any inference as
to any fact in issue or relevant fact, and which is made by any of the persons,
and under the circumstances, hereinafter mentioned is
A.Admission
B.Confession
C.Dying Declaration
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
45.
According to the Indian
Evidence Act 1872, information received from an accused person by a police
officer is relevant if:
A.Directly received by a
police officer in his presence
B.Received while the accused
as in the custody of a police officer
C.A fact is discovered in
consequence of it
D.It amounts to admitting the
commission of offence by him
Answer: Option C
46.
Which of the following
Sections of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to the pleaders relating to
professional communications?
A.Section 128 only
B.Section 130 only
C.Section 133 and Section 134
D.Section 126 and Section 127
Answer: Option D
47.
Under Section 146 of the
Indian Evidence Act, which kind of questions can not be asked during cross
examination?
A.To test the veracity of
witness
B.To discover the witness's
position in life
C.To shake credit of witness
D.Previous sexual experience
of victims of offence of rape
Answer: Option D
48.
In which of the following
cases the Supreme Court raised doubts regarding the applicability of the
doctrine of equitable estoppel beyond Section 115, Evidence Act?
A.Mercantile Bank of India
Ltd. v. Central Bank of India Ltd.
B.Madanappa v. Chandramma
C.Turner Morrison and Co. v.
Hungerford Investment Trust Ltd
D.Sitaram v. State of Uttar
Pradesh
Answer: Option B
49.
Who amongst the following is
an expert under the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Hand-writing expert
B.Fingerprint expert
C.Ballistics expert
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
50.
A party who calls a witness:
A.Can put any question to him
which might be put in cross examination by the adverse party
B.Can put any question to him
which might be put in cross examination by the opposite party only with the
permission of the Court
C.Cannot put any question to
him which might be put in cross examination by the opposite party even with the
permission of the Court
D.Can in no case put a
question to his own witness which might be put in cross examination by adverse
party
Answer: Option B
Which of the following need to be proved?
A.All laws in force in the
territory of India
B.Loan Records of Banks
C.All public acts passed by
the Parliament of the United Kingdom
D.Articles of war for the
Indian Army
Answer: Option B
52.
Which of the following
statement is correct?
1. Evidence of character in civil cases is irrelevant.
2. Previous conviction is relevant as evidence of bad character.
3. Evidence of good character is relevant in criminal cases.
4. Word cases character includes reputation only.
A.1 and 3 are correct
B.1, 2 and 3 are correct
C.2 and 3 are correct
D.All are correct
Answer: Option A
53.
Under Section 27 of the
Indian Evidence Act
A.The whole statement is
admissible
B.Only the portion of the
statement which leads to the discovery to admissible
C.Both the (a) and (20) are
admissible
D.None of the above are
admissible
Answer: Option B
54.
When was special provisions
as to evidence relating to electronic records added in the Evidence Act?
A.Year 2005
B.Year 2003
C.Year 2002
D.Year 2000
Answer: Option D
55.
Civil death' may be presumed,
if it is proved that one has not been heard of for:
A.10 years
B.20 years
C.12 years
D.7 years
Answer: Option D
56.
Point out the correct answer:
Law of Evidence is
A.Lex Tellienis
B.Lex Fori
C.Lex Loci
D.Lex Situs
Answer: Option B
57.
Who can make an admission
under Indian Evidence Act?
A.Witness to a Proceeding
B.A Party to Proceeding
C.A Third Party
D.The Court
Answer: Option B
58.
Section 13 of Indian Evidence
Act is
A.Applicable to public rights
and does not cover private rights
B.Not confined to public
rights, it covers private rights also
C.Applicable to private
rights and does not cover public rights
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
59.
A is accused of B's murder.
Which of the following will be a 'relevant fact'?
A.A's going to field with a club
B.A's saying shortly before
the incident that he will take a revenge of his father's death
C.A's fleeing before the
police arrived at village
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
60.
Section 133 deals with
A.A person who take part in
the commission of crime
B.A person who give information
of crime
C.A court which entertains
the case
D.A police officer who Is
related to the case
Answer: Option A
Statement
A: The presumption under Section 113-A of Indian Evidence
Act is not attracted if the marriage took place more than seven years prior to
the suicide of woman, even if the cruelty is established by prosecution.
Statement
B: By the introduction of Section 113-A of Indian Evidence
Act, the prosecution is not required to prove the facts beyond reasonable doubt
against the accused.
Which of the statement is correct?
A.Statement A
B.Statement B
C.Both statement A and B
D.None of the statements
Answer: Option A
62.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I (Relevancy of facts) |
List
II (Section of Evidence Acts) |
|
a. Facts as effect of facts
in issue |
1. Sec. 9 |
|
b. Facts forming part of
same transaction |
2. Sec. 8 |
|
c. Facts which constitute
preparation for any fact in issue |
3. Sec. 7 |
|
d. Facts necessary to
explain or introduce relevant facts |
4. Sec. 6 |
A.a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B.a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
C.a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
D.a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
Answer: Option C
63.
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
applies to
A.The whole of India
including the State of Jammu and Kashmir
B.All judicial proceedings in
or before any Court
C.Proceedings before an
Arbitrator
D.Affidavits presented to any
Court or Officer
Answer: Option B
64.
The question before the Court
. . . . . . . . of wreck of a ship, protest made by the captain . . . . . . . .
attendance cannot be produced
A.Is not a relevant fact
B.The judge cannot rely on it
C.Can be proved by a hearsay
evidence
D.Is a relevant fact
Answer: Option D
65.
What do you understand by the
term "Leading Question"?
A.Question suggesting the
answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive
B.A question asked to
contradict the witness by his previous writing
C.A question asked with
reasonable ground
D.A question asked with a
view to check the veracity of the witness
Answer: Option A
66.
"A barrister is
instructed by an attorney or a vakil that an important witness is a dacoit.
This is a reasonable ground for asking the witness whether he is a
dacoit."
This illustration is based on which of the following Sections of the Indian
Evidence Act?
A.Section 149
B.Section 153
C.Section 147
D.Section 145
Answer: Option A
67.
Admissions are not conclusive
proof of the matters admitted but they may operate as:
A.Res judicata
B.Estoppels
C.Res gestae
D.All of these
Answer: Option B
68.
Extrinsic evidence to show
the meaning or supply the defects in an instrument, is prohibited under section
93, in respect of
A.Ambiguitas patens
B.Ambiguitas latens
C.Both A and B
D.Only B and not A
Answer: Option A
69.
In relation to the expression
defined in Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, which of the following
statements is not correct?
A.Fact includes any mental
condition of which any person is conscious
B.Courts include arbitrators
C.An inscription on a metal
plate in a document
D.A fact is said to be not
proved when it is neither proved nor disproved
Answer: Option B
70.
Confession made to a police
officer
A.Shall be proved as against
a person accused of any offence
B.Shall not be proved as
against a person accused of any offence
C.Must be proved as against a
person accused of any offence
D.May be proved as against a
person accused of any offence
Answer: Option B
Statement
A: The presumption under Section 113-A of Indian Evidence
Act is not attracted if the marriage took place more than seven years prior to
the suicide of woman, even if the cruelty is established by prosecution.
Statement
B: By the introduction of Section 113-A of Indian Evidence
Act, the prosecution is not required to prove the facts beyond reasonable doubt
against the accused.
Which of the statement is correct?
A.Statement A
B.Statement B
C.Both statement A and B
D.None of the statements
Answer: Option A
62.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I (Relevancy of facts) |
List
II (Section of Evidence Acts) |
|
a. Facts as effect of facts
in issue |
1. Sec. 9 |
|
b. Facts forming part of
same transaction |
2. Sec. 8 |
|
c. Facts which constitute
preparation for any fact in issue |
3. Sec. 7 |
|
d. Facts necessary to
explain or introduce relevant facts |
4. Sec. 6 |
A.a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B.a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
C.a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
D.a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
Answer: Option C
63.
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
applies to
A.The whole of India
including the State of Jammu and Kashmir
B.All judicial proceedings in
or before any Court
C.Proceedings before an
Arbitrator
D.Affidavits presented to any
Court or Officer
Answer: Option B
64.
The question before the Court
. . . . . . . . of wreck of a ship, protest made by the captain . . . . . . . .
attendance cannot be produced
A.Is not a relevant fact
B.The judge cannot rely on it
C.Can be proved by a hearsay
evidence
D.Is a relevant fact
Answer: Option D
65.
What do you understand by the
term "Leading Question"?
A.Question suggesting the
answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive
B.A question asked to
contradict the witness by his previous writing
C.A question asked with
reasonable ground
D.A question asked with a
view to check the veracity of the witness
Answer: Option A
66.
"A barrister is
instructed by an attorney or a vakil that an important witness is a dacoit.
This is a reasonable ground for asking the witness whether he is a
dacoit."
This illustration is based on which of the following Sections of the Indian
Evidence Act?
A.Section 149
B.Section 153
C.Section 147
D.Section 145
Answer: Option A
67.
Admissions are not conclusive
proof of the matters admitted but they may operate as:
A.Res judicata
B.Estoppels
C.Res gestae
D.All of these
Answer: Option B
68.
Extrinsic evidence to show
the meaning or supply the defects in an instrument, is prohibited under section
93, in respect of
A.Ambiguitas patens
B.Ambiguitas latens
C.Both A and B
D.Only B and not A
Answer: Option A
69.
In relation to the expression
defined in Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, which of the following
statements is not correct?
A.Fact includes any mental
condition of which any person is conscious
B.Courts include arbitrators
C.An inscription on a metal
plate in a document
D.A fact is said to be not
proved when it is neither proved nor disproved
Answer: Option B
70.
Confession made to a police
officer
A.Shall be proved as against
a person accused of any offence
B.Shall not be proved as
against a person accused of any offence
C.Must be proved as against a
person accused of any offence
D.May be proved as against a
person accused of any offence
Answer: Option B
A' agrees to sell to 'B' his white horse in writing. 'A' has two white horses
and it becomes uncertain as to which horse was sold. Here in the document there
is:
A.Patent ambiguity
B.Latent ambiguity
C.No ambiguity
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
82.
X is charged for the murder
of Y. Which of the following is hearsay evidence?
A.Z states that "I saw X
stabbing Y with a knife"
B.Evidence of A that "Z
told me that he had seen X stabbing Y"
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
83.
Which one of the following
statements is true? Admissions are
A.Conclusive proof of the
matter admitted
B.Not conclusive proof of the
matter but may operate as estoppels under certain provisions of the Evidence
Act
C.Conclusive proof of the
matter admitted and always operate as estoppels
D.Not conclusive proof of the
matter
Answer: Option B
84.
A document can be proved
A.By producing it before the
Court
B.By examining the party who
has produced it
C.By examining the person in
whose hand writing the document is written or signed
D.By examining the person in
whose favour the document is executed
Answer: Option A
85.
A Will can be proved by at
least one attesting witness being examined. Therefore where both the attesting
witnesses have died, the Will cannot be proved. Is this statement correct?
A.Yes, as this is the only
way to prove the Will
B.No, both the attesting
witnesses must depose
C.No, it is not necessary to
produce attesting witnesses when the Will is registered
D.No, the signatures of the
attesting witnesses and the executants can be identified by the person
acquainted with signatures of the attesting witnesses and the executants
Answer: Option D
86.
Which of the questions is not
lawful in cross-examination?
A.A question to test the
veracity of the witness
B.A question to discover what
the position in life of the witness is
C.A question the answer of
which amounts to hearsay
D.A question to injure the
character of the witness
Answer: Option C
87.
Opinions of expert is dealt
under-
A.Section 44 of Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 45 of Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 46 of Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 47 of Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
88.
The possession or ownership
of property of the grandfather of defendant on the basis of documents 30 years
old can
A.Be proved
B.Not to be proved
C.Be proved at the option of
plaintiff
D.Be proved at the option of
defendant
Answer: Option A
89.
Section 162 of Criminal
Procedure Code
A.Controls section 157 of
Evidence Act
B.Controls section 156 of
Evidence Act
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option A
90.
Section 6 of the Indian
Evidence Act deals with
A.Relevancy of fact forming
part of same transaction
B.Admission
C.Opinion of expert
D.Conclusive proof
Answer: Option A
91.
By which Amendment, Section
114A was inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.Criminal Laws (Amendment)
Act, 1986
B.Criminal Laws (Amendment)
Act, 1984
C.Criminal Laws (Amendment)
Act, 1983
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
92.
The questions in
cross-examination:
A.Must be confined to the
fact testified by the witness on his examination-in-chief
B.Need not be confined to the
fact testified by the witness on his examination-in-chief
C.Can be asked to test the
patience and withstanding capacity of the witness
D.Can be asked even without
any reasonable basis
Answer: Option B
93.
A', accused of murder,
alleges that by grave and sudden provocation he was deprived of the power of
self control. On whom the burden of proof lies in the above situation to
establish grave and sudden provocation?
A.On the prosecution
B.On 'A'
C.On the Court
D.On the witnesses
Answer: Option B
94.
Which one of the following
facts is protected from disclosure in a court of law?
A.A, a client, says to B, an
attorney "I have committed forgery and I wish you to defend me"
B.A, a client, says to B, an
attorney "I wish to obtain possession of property by the use of a forged
deed on which I request you to sue"
C.A, being charged with
embezzlement retains B, an attorney to defend him. In the course of the
proceedings, B observes that an entry has been made in A's account book
charging A with the sum said to have been embezzled which entry was not in the
book at the commencement of his employment
D.A, a client says to his
attorney B, "I want to murder my enemy C. Please advise me how I may be
able to murder C"
Answer: Option A
95.
Which of the following
statements is true?
'A' is tried for the murder of 'B'. There is evidence of the fact that 'B'
prosecuted 'A' for libel and that 'A' was convicted and sentenced. This
judgement is
A.Conclusive proof of the
murder of 'B' by 'A' as it is judgement in rem
B.Relevant but not conclusive
proof as it relates to matters of a public nature relevant to the inquiry
C.Relevant as the existence
of such judgement is a fact in issue
D.Relevant under Section 8 as
showing the motive for the murder of 'B'
Answer: Option D
96.
A sues B for Rs. 1000 and
shows entries in his account-books showing B to be indebted to him to this
amount. Under Indian Evidence Act
A.The entries are relevant
but are not sufficient, without other evidence, to prove the debt
B.The entries are sufficient,
without other evidence, to prove the debt
C.The entries are not
relevant but are sufficient, without other evidence, to prove the debt
D.The entries are neither
relevant nor sufficient, to prove the debt
Answer: Option A
97.
What is meant by primary
evidence?
A.Basic evidence
B.Preliminary evidence
C.Essential evidence
D.None of the above
Answer: Option D
98.
The principle which preclude
a person from denying some statement previously made by him is known as
A.Admission
B.Confession
C.Res subjudice
D.Estoppel
Answer: Option D
99.
According to Section 62, a
Primary Evidence means-
A.The document itself
produced for the inspection of the Court
B.The true copy of the
document produced for the inspection of the Court
C.The Xerox copy of the
document produced for the inspection of the Court
D.Notarized copy of the
document
Answer: Option A
100.
Indian Evidence Act:
Identification of a suspect by photo is-
A.Not admissible in evidence
B.Admissible in evidence
C.The suspect must be present
D.Both, not admissible in
evidence and the suspect must be present
Answer: Option B
Section 15, Indian Evidence Act deals with a particular application of the
general principle laid down in:
A.Section
7, Indian Evidence Act
B.Section
10, Indian Evidence Act
C.Section
12, Indian Evidence Act
D.Section
14, Indian Evidence Act
Answer: Option D
2.
Under
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 what has not been mentioned?
A.Relevancy
of evidence
B.Admissibility
of evidence
C.Weight
of evidence
D.All
the above
Answer: Option C
3.
Which
is not a public document?
A.Order
of a competent authority fixing price of commodities
B.An
order issuing search warrant
C.A
crop cutting report by collector
D.Plaint
or written statement in a suit
Answer: Option D
4.
Bar
of exclusion of oral evidence by documentary evidence under Section 91 and 92
of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies:
A.When
fact to be proved would invalidate the document
B.When
fact to be proved shows in what manner the language of a document was related
to existing facts
C.When
fact to be proved relates to want or failure of consideration
D.When
fact to be proved relates to terms of a contract reduced in form of a document
Answer: Option D
5.
Under
which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a public servant shall not be
compelled to disclose communication made to him in official confidence?
A.Section
123
B.Section
124
C.Section
125
D.Section
126
Answer: Option B
6.
Estoppel
is:
A.Rule
of evidence
B.Used
as defence
C.Rule
of equity
D.All
the above
Answer: Option A
7.
An
accused charged under section 302 and 304B of the Indian Penal Code is
acquitted of the offence under section 302 of Indian Penal Code. The
presumption under section 113B of the Evidence Act is:
A.Automatically
refuted
B.Not
refuted
C.Not
relevant
D.Irrelevant
and otiose
Answer: Option B
8.
A
leading question, without the permission of the Court, may be asked in:
A.Examination-in-chief
B.At
any stage
C.Cross-examination
D.None
of these
Answer: Option C
9.
Which
one of the following sections relates to Secondary evidence?
A.Section
60
B.Section
80
C.Section
63
D.Section
62
Answer: Option C
10.
The
Doctrine of Holding out is an application of the principle of:
A.Agency
B.Estoppel
C.Vicarious
liability
D.Privity
of contract
Answer: Option B
Under which provision of the Indian Evidence Act, an accused may plead alibi?
A.Section 10
B.Section 11
C.Section 12
D.Section 13
Answer: Option B
12.
The term res gestae is
equivalent to facts mentioned in Section 6 of Evidence Act. It implies:
A.Things done in the course
of a transaction
B.Fact in issue and
surrounding circumstances
C.Acts talking for themselves
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
13.
Burden of proof in a criminal
proceeding is upon
A.The prosecution
B.Accused
C.Victim
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
14.
A' is accused of receiving
stolen goods knowing them to be stolen. He offers to prove that he refused to
sell them below their value. Which of the following is correct?
A.A' may prove the
statements, though in the nature of admission, because they are explanatory of
conduct influenced by facts in issue
B.A' may not prove the
statements because they are self-serving admissions
C.A' may not prove the
statements because as accused he cannot be a witness in his own defence
D.All these are incorrect
Answer: Option A
15.
A post mortem report is
admissible under-
A.Section 40
B.Section 43
C.Section 45
D.Section 47
Answer: Option C
16.
Which of the following
statements is correct?
A.Minimum 2 witnesses are
required for the proof of any fact
B.Minimum 3 witnesses are
required for the proof of any fact
C.Minimum 4 witnesses are
required for the proof of any fact
D.No particular number of
witnesses is required for proof of any fact
Answer: Option D
17.
Estoppels are binding
A.Upon litigating parties
B.Upon privies of the
litigating parties
C.Upon strangers to the lis
D.Both A and B only
Answer: Option D
18.
Upon acquittal, a co-accused
can be
A.A witness for the
prosecution only
B.A witness for the defence
only
C.A witness for the
prosecution as well as for the defence
D.An informal witnesses
Answer: Option C
19.
As per the Evidence Act,
admissions . . . . . . . .
A.Are conclusive proof of the
matters admitted
B.Are not conclusive proof of
the matters admitted but operate as estoppel
C.Are conclusive proof of the
matter and also operate as estoppel
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
20.
Which of the following is not
given by section 25 of Evidence Act
A.Confessions made to custom
officers
B.Confession made to a member
of Railway Protection Force
C.Confession made to an
officer under FERA
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
The decision
of a probate Court is
A.A judgment in rem
B.A judgment in personam
C.Conclusive proof
D.Foreign judgment
Answer: Option A
22.
In a trial, while explaining
any circumstances appearing in evidence against him, an accused of committing
murder states that due to grave and sudden provocation he was deprived of the
power of self-control and thus, gave a single lathi blow to A, causing his
death. The burden to prove grave and sudden provocation is on:
A.The Prosecution
B.The Investigating agency
C.The Court
D.The Accused
Answer: Option D
23.
Question is, whether A was
robbed. The fact that he said, he had been robbed without making any complaint
A.Is relevant showing
preparation for relevant facts
B.Is relevant showing conduct
C.Is relevant showing effect
of relevant facts
D.May be relevant under
Section 32 or Section 157 of the Evidence Act
Answer: Option D
24.
A woman is raped and makes
statement that A raped her. Two days later she commits suicide. Her statement
regarding rape is
A.Admissible as dying
declaration
B.Not admissible as dying
declaration
C.Admissible as dying declaration
only if there is some evidence directly connecting her death with the incident
of rape
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
25.
If a child is born within . .
. . . . . . Days after the dissolution of a valid marriage, it is a conclusive
proof of the legitimacy of the child
A.270
B.275
C.280
D.285
Answer: Option C
26.
Which of the following
statements is correct?
(A) The presumption under Section 113-A of the Indian Evidence Act would be
attracted, if the marriage of the accused and the deceased took place more than
7 years prior to the suicide of the woman and cruelty soon before death is
established by the prosecution.
(B) That because Section 113-A of the Indian Evidence Act is attracted to a
case, the prosecution is not required to prove its case beyond reasonable doubt
against the accused.
A.Statement (A)
B.Statement (B)
C.Both Statements (A) and (B)
D.None of the above
statements
Answer: Option D
27.
Consider the following
statements:
In criminal proceedings the burden of proof is
1. On the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused person.
2. On the accused to prove his innocence. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: Option A
28.
Consider the following
statements:
1. Presumption as to documents thirty-years old is mandatory
2. A child is not competent to testify
3. Doctrine of promissory estoppel is applicable against the government
4. Privilege granted to lawyers under section 126 aims at the protection of
lawyers
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.2, 3 and 4
C.4 only
D.3 only
Answer: Option C
29.
The res inter alia acta is
receivable
A.Under Section 48 of
Evidence Act
B.Under Section 47 of
Evidence Act
C.Under Section 46 of
Evidence Act
D.Under Section 45 of
Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
30.
A' Wishes to prove a dying
declaration by 'H', 'A' must prove B's death. Which Section of the Indian
Evidence Act provides so?
A.Section 32(1)
B.Section 103
C.Section 104
D.Section 105
Answer: Option C
News paper
report is a evidence
A.Hearsay
B.Circumstantial
C.Primary
D.Secondary
Answer: Option A
32.
Which of the following
Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes an accomplice a competent
witness against accused?
A.130
B.131
C.132
D.133
E.None of the above
Answer: Option D
33.
Who may not testify?
A.An accomplice
B.Child
C.Dumb person
D.Lunatic-who is unable to
understand question and to give a rational answer
Answer: Option D
34.
A' gives 'B' a receipt for
money paid by 'B' to 'A'. Oral evidence is offered of the payment. What is the
status of evidence under Section 91 of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.It is admissible
B.It is not admissible
C.It is irrelevant
D.It is secondary evidence
Answer: Option A
35.
The presumption under Section
90 of the Evidence Act can be drawn in respect of:
A.Original documents only
B.Certified copies only
C.Uncertified copies only
D.All the above
Answer: Option A
36.
A and B make a contract in
writing that B shall sell A a house, to be paid for on delivery. At the same
time they make an oral agreement that three months' credit shall be given to A.
Can evidence of this oral agreement be given in a court?
A.Yes, by A against a third
party
B.Yes, by A against B or vice
versa
C.Yes, by a third party
against A or B
D.Yes, by a third party, only
if he is affected, against A or B
Answer: Option D
37.
Which of the following is the
proper order of the examination?
A.Cross examination,
reexamination, examination in chief
B.Examination in chief,
reexamination, cross examination
C.Examination in chief, cross
examination, re examination
D.Reexamination, examination
in chief, cross examination
Answer: Option C
38.
Section 106 of the Indian
Evidence Act is based on the principle of:
A.Res gestae
B.Res ipsa loquitur
C.Res judicata
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
39.
A witness who is unable to
speak is called as
A.Deaf witness
B.Dumb witness
C.Hostile witness
D.Unreliable witness
Answer: Option B
40.
Tape recorded statements are
A.Documentary evidence
B.Oral evidence
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
Match the List:
|
List
I (Subject matter) |
List
II (Section of Indian Evidence Act) |
|
a. Indecent and Scandalous
questions |
1. Section 155 |
|
b. Impeaching credit of
witness |
2. Section 152 |
|
c. Question intended to
insult or annoy |
3. Section 154 |
|
d. Question by party to his
own witness |
4. Section 151 |
A.a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
B.a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
C.a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
D.a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
Answer: Option D
42.
The question is, whether A
poisoned B. Applying Section 6, Indian Evidence Act which of the following
facts can be relevant?
A.Marks on the ground
produced by a struggle at or near the place where the murder was committed
B.The state of B's health
before the symptoms ascribed to poison, and habits of B, known to A, which
afforded an opportunity for the administration of poison
C.The facts that shortly
before the poisoning, B went to a fair with money in possession, and that he
showed it or mentioned the fact that he had it, to third persons
D.None of them
Answer: Option B
43.
Which of the following is not
correct statement?
A.No confession which is
procured by promise is relevant
B.A confession made by an
accused to a police officer whether during custody or out of custody is
irrelevant
C.A confession made by an
accused voluntarily to any person other than police officer while he was not in
police custody can be proved
D.A confession made by an
accused to a police officer in the presence of a Magistrate is relevant
Answer: Option A
44.
Which Section of Evidence Act
provides that judge will decide as to admissibility of evidence?
A.Section 5
B.Section 23
C.Section 136
D.Section 148
Answer: Option C
45.
Privilege to withhold
documents/information under the administrative law is
A.Section 140
B.Section 153
C.Section 123
D.Section 127
Answer: Option C
46.
The 'best evidence rule'
excludes secondary evidence of documents if:
A.Originals are available
B.Originals are not available
C.Circumstantial evidence
exists
D.Oral evidence is given in
the case
Answer: Option A
47.
In which section, doctrine of
dying declaration is found?
A.Section 16
B.Section 27
C.Section 32
D.Section 41
Answer: Option C
48.
In which one of the following
cases was the constitutional validity of Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act
upheld?
A.State of Uttar Pradesh v.
Deoman Upadhyaya
B.Bodh Raj v. State of Jammu
and Kashmir
C.Md. Inayathullah v. State
of Maharashtra
D.Shambulal Dayal v. Subhash
Chandra
Answer: Option A
49.
During the course of
investigation information received from an accused who is in police custody
leads to the discovery about arms, cloths, ornament, corpus which are related
with the offence are relevant under Section 27 of the Evidence Act. This principle
is laid down in the case law of:
A.Pulukuri Kottya v. Emperor
B.Khushal Rao v. State of
Bombay
C.Savaldas v. State of Bihar
D.Pakla Naraya Swami v.
Emperor
Answer: Option A
50.
The question is whether
"A" was ravished? The fact that without making a complaint, she said
that he has been ravished is
A.Relevant as conduct
B.Admissible as conduct
C.Not relevant as conduct
D.A subject matter of enquiry
Answer: Option C
According to Indian Evidence Act 1872, statement made by a person as to the
cause of his death will become 'dying declaration'
A.When he was under
expectation of death
B.Even though he was not
under expectation of death
C.When it was made within one
hour prior to his death
D.When he dies immediately
after making it
Answer: Option B
52.
Which of the following is
correct?
A.There is a presumption that
maps of various States and Union Territories made by the Survey of India are
accurate
B.There is a presumption that
map prepared by a registered architect for the purpose of a civil dispute is
accurate
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option A
53.
Public document includes
A.Record of tribunal
B.Record of court
C.Record of public officers
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
54.
Which of the following
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act relates to accomplice?
A.Section 30
B.Section 133
C.Section 134
D.Section 29
Answer: Option B
55.
Identification of a suspect
by photo is
A.Admissible in evidence
B.Not admissible in evidence
C.Section 9 of Evidence Act
excludes identification by photo
D.Section 8 of Evidence Act
excludes identification by photo
Answer: Option A
56.
A desires a Court to give
judgment that B shall be punished for a crime which A says B has committed.
According to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 the burden of proof is on
A.A, under Section 101
B.B, under Section 103
C.A, under Section 104
D.B, under Section 108
Answer: Option A
57.
Under section 32(4) of
Evidence Act, the declaration
A.As to public rights and
customs are admissible
B.As to private rights and
customs are admissible
C.As to both public and
private rights and customs are admissible
D.Only as to customs are
admissible
Answer: Option A
58.
Which of the following does
not constitute evidence within the meaning of Section 3 of the Evidence Act?
A.Tape recording of
conversation
B.Affidavit
C.Electronic record produced
for the inspection of court
D.All documents produced for
the inspection of court
Answer: Option B
59.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872, in a trial, the burden of proving the plea of insanity of accused lies
on:
A.Prosecution
B.Accused
C.Civil Surgeon to whom the
accused was referred for examination
D.First on Prosecution then
in reply upon accused
E.None of these
Answer: Option B
60.
Admission are not conclusive
proof of the matters admitted but they may operate as . . . . . . . .
A.Formal proof
B.Estoppel
C.Concession
D.Waiver of proof
Answer: Option B
Which case relates to estoppel?
A.Mohiribibi v. Dharam Das
Ghoush
B.Hadley v. Bexandale
C.Pickard v. Sears
D.Lalman Shuklu v. Gauri Dutt
Answer: Option C
62.
An information, supplied by
an accused under Section 27 of the Evidence Act, shall be recorded:
A.In presence of two
independent Panch witnesses
B.In presence of a Gazetted
Officer
C.In presence of two Police
Officers
D.None of the above
Answer: Option D
63.
Under Section 68 of Evidence
Act, for proving execution of a registered will it is-
A.Necessary to call at least
two attesting witnesses
B.Necessary to call, at
leastone attesting witness
C.Not necessary to call any
attesting witness
D.Necessary to call the
Registrar
Answer: Option B
64.
Estoppel:
A.Is an equitable principle
B.Is a Rule of common law
C.Is a principle evolved by
judicial pronouncements
D.Is codified in Indian law
Answer: Option D
65.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872, the maxim "SALUS POPULI SUPREMALEX" is related to-
A.Section 121
B.Section 122
C.Section 123
D.Section 124
Answer: Option C
66.
Which court gave the final
Judgement in the case of Pakala Narayan Swami v. King Emperor?
A.Madras High Court
B.Supreme Court
C.Privy Council
D.Federal Court
Answer: Option C
67.
Oral account of the contents
of a document is admissible
A.When give by a person who
has seen and read the document
B.When given by a person who
has seen but not read the document
C.When given by a person to
whom the document was read over
D.Is not admissible in either
of the above cases
Answer: Option A
68.
In election petition the
burden of proof lies on:
A.The person who contested
election
B.The person who challenged
election
C.Election Commission
D.Election agent
Answer: Option B
69.
A fact-forming part of the
same transaction is relevant under Section 6 of the Evidence Act
A.If it is in issue and has
occurred at the same time and place
B.If it is in issue and has
occurred at different times and places
C.Though not in issue and may
have occurred at the same time and place or at different times and places
D.Though not in issue, must
have occurred at the same time and place
Answer: Option C
70.
Protection under section 122
of Evidence Act is available to
A.A witness
B.Husband and wife as a
witness
C.Both A and B
D.Either A or B
Answer: Option B
71.
Which of the following is
true about First Information Report (FIR)?
A.It is not a substantive
evidence
B.It is a primary evidence
C.It is a documentary
evidence
D.It is an important
secondary evidence
Answer: Option A
72.
For leading secondary
evidence:
A.Moving an application
seeking perrmssion therefor, immediately after admission/denial of documents
and before framing of issues, is essential
B.An application seeking
permission of the Court is to be filed before commencement of evidence of the
party seeking to lead secondary evidence
C.No application seeking
permission of the court is necessary
D.Application seeking
permission if not filed earlier can be filed even after conclusion of evidence
Answer: Option C
73.
Confessions made while in
custody of police are-
A.Irrelevant
B.Irrelevant
C.Inadmissible
D.Relevant
Answer: Option C
74.
Facts forming part of same
transaction are relevant in which section of Indian Evidence Act ?
A.Section 6
B.Section 7
C.Section 5
D.Section 9
Answer: Option A
75.
Opinions of experts are
relevant under which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 45
B.Section 46
C.Section 47
D.Section 48
Answer: Option A
76.
Oral evidence, under Section
60 of the Evidence Act, 1872 must in all cases be
A.Indirect
B.Circumstantial
C.Direct
D.May be presumed by Court
Answer: Option C
77.
Court questions can be put by
virtue of
A.Section 164 of Evidence Act
B.Section 165 of Evidence Act
C.Section 166 of Evidence Act
D.Section 167 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
78.
A dying declaration
1. Cannot form the sole basis of conviction unless corroborated.
2. Is a weak kind of evidence.
3. Stands on same footing as any other piece of evidence.
4. Has to be subjected to a very close scrutiny for reliability.
Select the correct answer:
A.1 and 4
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1 only
Answer: Option C
79.
The question is, whether 'A'
committed a crime at Lucknow on certain day. The fact that, on that day 'A' was
at Delhi, is a relevant fact under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 9
B.Section 10
C.Section 11
D.Section 12
80.
"A fact in personal
knowledge of the judge cannot be taken in evidence". In which case this
had been held?
A.Har Prasad v. Shiva Dayal,
(1876) 31A 259
B.Kashmira Singh v. State of
Madhya Pradesh, 1952 ACR 536
C.Virendra Kumar Ghosh v.
Emperor, ILR (1910) 37 Cal 474
D.Pushpa Devi Ramjatia v. M.
L. Wadhwa, AIR 1987 SC 1748
Answer: Option A
Which of the
following statements is correct:
A.Estoppel is not a rule of
evidence
B.Estoppel from record
constitutes bar of res-judicata
C.There can be estoppel on a
point of law
D.There cannot be estoppel
when the truth of the matter's is known to both parties
Answer: Option D
82.
Rule of estoppel of tenants
and of licence of person in possession is contained in
A.Section 116 of Evidence Act
B.Section 117 of Evidence Act
C.Section 118 of Evidence Act
D.Section 119 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
83.
A fact forming part of the
same transaction is relevant under section 6 of Evidence Act
A.If it is in issue and have
occurred at the same time and place
B.If it is in issue and may
have occurred at different times and places
C.Though not in issue and may
have occurred at the same time and place or at different times and places
D.Though not in issue, must
have occurred at the same time and place
Answer: Option C
84.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
the judgments of Admiralty Court are relevant in:
A.Section 39
B.Section 40
C.Section 41
D.Section 42
Answer: Option C
85.
A desires, a court to give
judgement that he is entitled to certain land in the possession of B on basis
of certain facts, which 'B' denies to be true under section 101 of evidence Act
A.A can not prove the
existence of those facts
B.A need not prove the
existence of those facts
C.A must prove the existence
of those facts
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
86.
In which Section of the
Indian Evidence Act 'Presumption as to Dowry Death' is provided?
A.Section 111-A
B.Section 113-A
C.Section 113-B
D.Section 113
Answer: Option C
87.
The doctrine of estoppel
means:
A.Not to make statement in
consonance to the earlier statement
B.Restriction to make
statement contrary to the earlier statement/admission
C.Res judicata
D.Vague statement
Answer: Option B
88.
A fact when it is neither
proved nor disproved is said to:
A.Disproved
B.Not proved
C.May proved
D.All of these
Answer: Option B
89.
A judicial admission operates
as
A.An admission
B.A confession
C.A plea of ignorance
D.A waiver of proof
Answer: Option D
90.
The Judge's power to put
questions or order production of documents does not include authorization to
A.Compel a witness to answer
any question which such witness is entitled to refuse to answer if the question
were asked by the adverse party
B.To ask a question which
would be proper for any other person to ask
C.To elicit clarity on a
point
D.None of these
Answer: Option A
Evidence Act-'Res gestae' is an exception to the . . . . . . . .
A.Hearsay Rule
B.Relevancy Rule
C.Circumstantial evidence
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
92.
A non-testamentary document
is one
A.Which is intended to take
effect or be operative immediately on its execution
B.Which is final
C.Which is irrevocable
D.All the above
E.Which is revocable
Answer: Option D
93.
A informs B that he had heard
from X that Z has committed murder of a few days ago. Evidence of B when
examined as a witness in court, would be considered as:
A.Direct evidence
B.Hearsay evidence
C.Circumstantial evidence
D.Expert evidence
Answer: Option B
94.
Admission by agents are:
A.Admissible in civil
proceedings only if the agent has the authority to make admissions
B.Admissible in civil
proceedings under all circumstances
C.Never admissible in
criminal proceedings
D.Both A and C
Answer: Option D
95.
Which of the following
statements hold true for dying declaration?
A.Dying declaration cannot be
used as a sole basis of conviction
B.Dying declaration unless
corroborated cannot be used as the sole basis of conviction
C.Dying declaration which is
brief must be discarded
D.When eye-witness affirms
that the deceased was not in a fit state to make the declaration, medical
opinion cannot prevail
Answer: Option D
96.
In which of the following
sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provision as to refresh memory has
been given
A.Section 141
B.Section 149
C.Section 159
D.Section 158
Answer: Option C
97.
A man is alive unless nothing
has been heard about him for seven years:
A.It is presumption of law
B.It is natural presumption
C.It is presumption of fact
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
98.
The term
"character" as explained in Section 55 of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872, means
A.Good and bad character
B.Reputation and disposition
of general nature
C.Reputation formed on the
basis of particular disposition
D.Character in a criminal act
Answer: Option B
99.
A witness was asked whether
he was not dismissed from a post for dishonesty. He denies it.
The evidence is offered to show that he was dismissed for dishonesty-
A.The evidence is admissible
if it comes from plaintiff side
B.The evidence is admissible
if it comes from defendant side
C.The evidence is admissible
D.The evidence is
inadmissible
Answer: Option D
100.
Propositions under Evidence
Act are
1. Presumptions of facts are always rebuttable
2. Presumption of facts can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable
3. Presumption of law are always irrebuttable
4. Presumption of law can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable.
Which is true of the aforesaid propositions
A.1 and 3 are correct but 2
and 4 are incorrect
B.1 and 4 are correct but 2
and 3 are incorrect
C.2 and 3 are correct but 1
and 4 are incorrect
D.2 and 4 are correct but 1
and 3 are incorrect
Answer: Option B
1.
The
person whose statement is admitted under section 32 of Evidence Act
A.Must
be competent to testify
B.Need
not be competent to testify
C.May
or may not be competent to testify
D.Only
A is correct and B and C are incorrect
Answer: Option C
2.
An
admission is a statement that may be:
A.In
oral form only
B.In
documentary form only
C.In
electronic form only
D.All
the above
Answer: Option D
3.
A'
document is said to be in the handwriting of 'A'. That document is produced
from proper custody. If the document is purporting or proved to be-
A.Thirty
B.Fifteen
C.Twenty
D.Twelve
years old, court may presume that is in 'A's handwriting
Answer: Option A
4.
Which
of the following statement is correct with respect to an accomplice?
A.An
accomplice shall not be a competent witness against an accused person
B.An
accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person
C.No
conviction shall be made based on the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice
D.An
accomplice's testimony shall always be corroborated
Answer: Option B
5.
The
Indian Evidence Act 1872 does not deal with:
A.Relevancy
of evidence
B.Reliability
of evidence
C.Admissibility
of evidence
D.Rejection
of evidence
Answer: Option D
6.
What
is the object of cross-examination of a witness?
A.To
destroy or weaken the evidentiary value of the witness of adversary party
B.To
elicit facts in favour of cross-examining lawyer's client from the mouth of
witness of adversary party
C.To
show that witness is untrust-worthy by impeaching his credibility
D.All
the above are correct
Answer: Option A
7.
Which
of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals in criminal
proceedings where previous bad character is not relevant, except in reply?
A.Section
59
B.Section
54
C.Section
49
D.Section
40
Answer: Option B
8.
Under
Section 85C of the Indian Evidence Act, the presumption as to electronic
signature certificates correctness, the court:
A.May
presume
B.Shall
presume
C.Shall
not presume
D.May
not presume
Answer: Option B
9.
The
documents are:
A.Caricature
B.Words
printed, lithographed or photographed
C.A
map and an inscription on a stone
D.All
of the above
Answer: Option D
10.
Principle
of 'omnia proesumuntur rite esse acta' is contained in
A.Section
78 of Evidence Act
B.Section
79 of Evidence Act
C.Section
80 of Evidence Act
D.Section
81 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
The doctrine of Estoppel is applied.
A.Only in civil matters
B.Only in criminal matters
C.Both in civil and criminal
matters
D.Only when there is
violation of the principle of natural justice
Answer: Option A
12.
A party may put any question
to a witness called by it
A.At its pleasure
B.With the permission of the
court
C.With the consent of opposite
party
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
13.
When the liability of a
person who is one of the parties to the suit depends upon the liability of a
stranger to the suit, then an admission by the stranger in respect of his
liability shall be an admission on the part of that person who is a party to the
suit. It has been so provided
A.Under section 21 of
Evidence Act
B.Under section 20 of
Evidence Act
C.Under section 19 of
Evidence Act
D.Under section 17 of
Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
14.
In which case Section 27 of
the Act was held to be constitutionally valid-
A.Deoman Upadhyay v. State of
Uttar Pradesh
B.Ahir Raja Khema v. State of
Saurashtra
C.Subramania Goundan v. State
of Madras
D.Nathu v. State of Uttar
Pradesh
Answer: Option A
15.
Many rules of 'Law of
Evidence' are contained in:
A.Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973
B.Indian Limitation Act, 1963
C.Banker's Book Evidence Act,
1963
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
16.
Which of the following pairs
is not correctly matched?
A.Admission by persons having
any proprietary interest ⇔ Section 18 of
the Indian Evidence Act
B.Confession made after
removal of impression caused by inducement ⇔ Section 28 of
the Indian Evidence Act
C.Admission by persons
expressly referred to by party to suit ⇔ Section 21 of
the Indian Evidence Act
D.Confession of an accused in
police custody ⇔ Section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
17.
One of the following statements
is not true, which one is that:
A.A confession by one
co-accused implicating other co-accused would be proved
B.A confession to a
police-officer cannot be proved
C.A confession by a person in
the custody of a police officer to any person in the presence of magistrate can
be proved
D.If the confession of a
person leads to recovery of a thing it can be proved
Answer: Option A
18.
For proving execution of a
registered will-
A.Be necessary to call at
least two attesting witness
B.Be necessary to call at
least one attesting witness
C.Not necessary to call any
attesting witness
D.Be necessary to call the
registrar
Answer: Option B
19.
Plea of Alibi: Rule of
Evidence is recognized in which one of the following sections of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872?
A.Section 9
B.Section 10
C.Section 11
D.Section 12
Answer: Option C
20.
Section 41, Indian Evidence
Act deals with
A.Judgements in Personam
B.Judgments in Rem
C.Res Judicata
D.Double Jeopardy
Answer: Option B
Motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct is covered under Section
. . . . . . . . of Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
A.8
B.9
C.10
D.11
Answer: Option A
22.
Presumption as to electronic
record under Indian Evidence Act is drawn by the Court when the record is:
A.Five years old
B.Ten years old
C.Thirty years old
D.Thirteen years old
Answer: Option A
23.
The opinion of expert may be
obtained under section 45 of Evidence Act in relation to
A.Science, Art, Law, Finger
impression and handwriting/signature
B.Science including medical
matters, Art, Law, Finger impression and handwriting
C.Science including medical
matters, Art, Law, Finger impression, handwriting and signatures
D.Science, Art, Foreign Law,
Finger Impression and handwriting/signature
Answer: Option D
24.
The autopsy report provided
by a medical examiner is:
A.Eye witness Evidence
B.Opinion Evidence
C.Contradictory Evidence
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
25.
An accomplice is a competent
witness:
A.Under Section 118 of the
Evidence Act
B.Under Section 119 of the
Evidence Act
C.Under Section 132 of the
Evidence Act
D.Under Section 133 of the
Evidence Act
Answer: Option D
26.
Under Section 116 of the
Indian Evidence Act, the tenant is stopped from denying the title of the
landlord
A.During the continuance of
the tenancy
B.Before creation of tenancy
C.After surrender of
possession
D.All these
Answer: Option A
27.
Which section of Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 is reflection of "Doctrine of Confirmation by
subsequent facts"?
A.Section 27
B.Section 115
C.Section 165
D.None of these
Answer: Option A
28.
A hires lodgings of B and
gives a card on which is written "Rooms Rs. 200 a month" A tenders
oral evidence to prove a verbal agreement that these terms were to include
partial board. The evidence is:
A.Inadmissible under section
91 of the Indian Evidence Act
B.Inadmissible under section
92 of the Indian Evidence Act
C.Admissible
D.Irrelevant
Answer: Option C
29.
Which of the following facts
will not be relevant under section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.The conduct of an accused
in absconding when the police got suspicious of his complicity in the offence
of murder
B.The presence of the accused
before and after the incident in the vicinity of the village in which dacoity
took place
C.In case of bride burning,
the conduct of the husband after the incident
D.All of these
Answer: Option D
30.
Opinion of handwriting expert
under the law of evidence in India is
A.Not relevant
B.Relevant and is sole
determinant
C.Relevant but not sole
determinant of genuineness of document
D.Not clear
Answer: Option C
1.
Which provision of the Indian
Evidence Act lays down the rule that in certain circumstances admission can be
proved by or on behalf of the person making it?
A.Section 18
B.Section 19
C.Section 20
D.Section 21
Answer: Option D
32.
To be admissible, a dying
declaration:
A.Must be made before a
Magistrate
B.Must be made before a
Police Officer
C.Must be made before a
Doctor
D.Must be made to any person,
a doctor, a magistrate, friend or a near relative
Answer: Option D
33.
Section 31 of the Indian
Evidence Act says that admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters
admitted, but they may operate as:
A.Res judicata
B.Res gestae
C.Estoppels
D.None of these
Answer: Option C
34.
Due execution of a document
more than thirty years old coming from proper custody, is a:
A.Rebuttable presumption of
law
B.Presumption of fact
C.Irrebuttable presumption of
law
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
35.
A' is tried for a riot and is
proved to have marched as the head of a mob. The cries of the mob are relevant
as
A.They are related to things
said or done by the conspiratorsin reference to the common design
B.Explanation of the nature
of the transaction
C.Explanatory of motive or
preparation
D.Explanatory of occasion,
cause or effectsor facts
Answer: Option D
36.
Under section 92 of Evidence
Act oral evidence to explain the real nature of the transaction is admissible
A.Where the document does not
record all the terms of the contract
B.Where the document records
all the terms of the contract
C.Where the documents is
complete in itself
D.All the above
Answer: Option A
37.
Under Section 27 of the
Evidence Act the 'Fact discovered' means . . . . . . . .
A.The object produced only
B.The place from where the
object is produced only
C.The knowledge of the
accused as to the object and the place
D.None of these
Answer: Option C
38.
The details of an incidence
printed in a Newspaper are categorised as:
A.Documentary evidence
B.Indirect evidence
C.Hearsay evidence
D.Relevant evidence
Answer: Option C
39.
Which of the following
statements is correct?
A.The Indian Evidence Act
applies to affidavits
B.The Indian Evidence Act
applies to a proceeding whose object is to determine a jural relation between
one person and another
C.The Indian Evidence Act
applies to arbitration proceedings
D.The Indian Evidence Act
applies to departmental proceedings
Answer: Option B
40.
Testimony of an accomplice
before it is accepted and acted upon
A.Must be corroborated from
the testimony of another accomplice
B.Must be corroborated from
an independent source
C.Need not be corroborated at
all
D.Need not be corroborated
but corroboration is required as a rule of guidance
Answer: Option D
Which of the following will be an inadmissible dying declaration?
A.Oral dying declaration
B.Dying declaration recorded
on the basis of nods and gestures
C.Dying declaration by signs
and gestures
D.None above
Answer: Option D
42.
Which one of the following is
not secondary evidence?
A.Copy prepared from original
by mechanical process which has been compared with the original
B.Copy prepared from original
by mechanical process
C.Oral evidence of a person
about the contents of document, who has seen the document
D.Copy Prepared from the
original and compared with it
Answer: Option B
43.
A private document kept as
public record of the State comes under the category of:
A.Public document
B.Private document
C.Both Public and Private
document
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
44.
"The DNA test cannot
rebut the conclusive presumption envisaged under section 112 of the Indian
Evidence Act. The parties can avoid the rigor of such conclusive presumption
only by providing non-access which is a negative proof." It was so held in
which case
A.Somwanti v. State of
Punjab, AIR 1963 SC 151
B.Siddaramesh v. State of
Karnataka, (2010) 3 SCC 152
C.Kailash v. State of Madhya
Pradesh, AIR 2007 SC 107
D.Shaik Fakruddin v. Shaik
Mohammad Hasan, AIR 2006 AP 48
Answer: Option D
45.
C' is employed as cashier by
a firm to receive money at its sale counter. It is his duty to make entries in
the ledger showing the amounts received by him. He is prosecuted on the charge
of criminal breach of trust in respect of rupees ninety thousand on the basis
of evidence showing he made an entry showing that he had received rupees ten
thousand only whereas he had actually received rupees one lakh. 'C' has taken
the plea that the wrong entry was accidental and unintentional. The fact that
other entries made in the same ledger are false, each showing receipt of less
amount by 'C' is
A.Ledger are false, each
showing receipt of less amount by 'C' is
B.Not relevant as the other entries
are not basis of charge
C.Not relevant as the
evidence is extraneous
D.Not relevant as other
entries are not in issue
Answer: Option A
46.
A deaf-mute's evidence made
by writing in open court, shall be deemed to be:
A.Documentary evidence
B.Hearsay evidence
C.Oral evidence
D.Primary evidence
Answer: Option C
47.
The principle that possession
is prima facie proof of ownership is contained in
A.Section 109 of Evidence Act
B.Section 110 of Evidence Act
C.Section 111 of Evidence Act
D.Section 112 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
48.
Assertion (A): An accomplice shall be
a competent witness against an accused person.
Reason
(R): An accomplice is unworthy of credit, unless he is
corroborated in material particulars.
A.Both A and R are true and R
is the correct explanation of A
B.Both A and R are true, but
R is not a correct explanation of A
C.A is true but R is false
D.A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A
49.
Execution of document may be
presumed if the document is to be old:
A.Ten years
B.Twenty years
C.Thirty years
D.Forty years
Answer: Option C
50.
Putting an exhibit mark on a
document:
A.Disentitles either party to
the suit from contending that the document is not to be read into evidence
B.Disentitles either party
from contending at the stage of final arguments that the document should not be
read into evidence unless such party had at the time of putting of exhibit mark
raised objection to its admission into evidence and such objection was kept
open for decision
C.Does not ipso facto amount
to admission of the document in evidence especially if the document is per se
not admissible into evidence
D.Is final as far as the Suit
Court is concerned, of admission of the document into evidence
Answer: Option C
A disputed handwriting can be proved:
A.By calling an expert
B.By examining a person
acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document
C.Comparison of the two,
admitted and disputed documents
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
52.
False evidence is:
A.Whoever, being legally
bound by an oath or by any express provision of law to state the truth
B.Being bound by law to make
a declaration upon any subject, makes any statement which is false, and which
he either knows or believes to be false
C.Being bound by law to make
a declaration upon any subject, makes any statement which is false, and which
he does not believe to be true is said to give false evidence
D.All of them
Answer: Option D
53.
After re-examination of a
witness, the adverse party has a
A.Right to further
cross-examine the witness afresh in general
B.Has no right to further
cross-examine the witness
C.Right to further
cross-examine the witness only when a new fact is introduced in the
re-examination
D.Either A or B
Answer: Option C
54.
Section 31, Indian Evidence
Act declares
A.That admissions are not
conclusive proof of the matters admitted, but they may operate as estoppels
B.Unless admissions are
contractual or unless they constitute estoppels they are not conclusive, but
are open rebuttal or explanation
C.Either A or B
D.Both A and B
Answer: Option D
55.
Match the two columns:
|
Column-I |
Column-II |
|
a. Rebuttable presumption |
1. Court shall not permit
evidence to the contrary |
|
b. Irrebuttable presumption |
2. Court may presume a fact
unless it is disproved |
|
c. Conclusive proof |
3. Court shall presume a
fact unless it is disproved |
|
d. Proved |
4. Court believes it to exist
or considers its existence probable |
A.a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B.a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
C.a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
D.a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
56.
Court can take judicial
notice
A.That Amitabh Bachchan is a
famous actor
B.That M. F. Hussain is a
veteran painter
C.That Bentham was a renowned
jurist
D.None of the above
Answer: Option D
57.
The doctrine of estoppel is a
A.Substantive law
B.Rule of equity
C.Rule of evidence
D.Law of pleadings
Answer: Option C
58.
How many witnesses are
required to prove a fact?
A.Two
B.One
C.At least one eye witness
and complainant
D.No particular number
Answer: Option D
59.
Which of the following
statements hold true for section 154 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.The Court is bound to give
leave if the requirements are met
B.The witness must be
declared hostile before making a plea under this section
C.The Court can give the
leave under this section suo motu
D.All of these
Answer: Option C
60.
For the purpose of proving a
registered 'Will' it shall be necessary to call
A.All the attesting witnesses
B.One attesting witness at
least
C.One attesting witness and
the scriber of the Will
D.One attesting witness and
the registering officer
Answer: Option B
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to admissibility
and relevancy of evidence?
A.An admissible fact is
always a relevant fact
B.A relevant fact is always
an admissible fact
C.A relevant fact is
considered by the court as a material fact but judgment is not based on it
D.An admissible fact is a
stage where the court taking any relevant fact on the record of a case decides
any right or liability and bases its judgment on it
Answer: Option A
62.
Under which Section of the
Indian Evidence Act, the burden of proving that the case of an accused comes
within the exceptions, lies on the accused?
A.Section 103
B.Section 104
C.Section 105
D.Section 107
Answer: Option C
63.
A certified copy of a
registered sale deed produced in evidence
A.Will be proof of execution
of the original and its registration
B.Will be proof of execution
only
C.Will be merely proof of the
fact that an original document was registered
D.Will not prove anything in
absence of original
Answer: Option C
64.
Where a married woman, dying
of bums was a person of unsound mind and the medical certificate vouchsafed her
physical fitness for a statement and not the state of mind at the crucial
moment; in which of the following cases the court said that the statement could
not be relied upon?
A.Ravi Chander v. State of
Punjab
B.Shripatrao v. State of Maharashtra
C.Uka Ram v. State of
Rajasthan
D.Baldev Raj v. State of
Haryana
Answer: Option C
65.
Which of the following
Sections provides that evidence may be given of facts in issue?
A.Section 3
B.Section 4
C.Section 5
D.Section 6
Answer: Option C
66.
Under which provision of law,
can a court direct any person to write any words or figures for comparison of
handwriting?
A.Section 91 of Criminal
Procedure Code
B.Section 54-A of Criminal
Procedure Code
C.Section 73 of Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 311 of Criminal
Procedure Code
Answer: Option C
67.
In case of wills, under
section 90 of Evidence Act the period of thirty years shall run
A.From the date of the will
B.From the date of the death
of the testator
C.From the date of
registration of the will, if registered
D.When stamp for will was
purchased
Answer: Option A
68.
Presumption as to rape is
contained in:
A.Section 113-A, Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 114-A, Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 113-B, Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 114-B, Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
69.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
'Dying Declaration' is contained in:
A.Section 31
B.Section 23
C.Section 32
D.Section 33
Answer: Option C
70.
Under Proviso of Section
146(3) of the Evidence Act, in a prosecution for rape in her cross-examination,
the prosecutrix-
A.Can be put question as to
her general immoral character
B.With the permission of the
Court can be put questions as to her general immoral character
C.Cannot be put questions as
to her general immoral character
D.Cannot be put question as
to her rape
Answer: Option C
When a number of documents are all made by one uniform process, as in the case
of printing, lithography or photography, each is
A.Secondary evidence of the
contents of the rest
B.Primary evidence of the
contents of the rest
C.Direct evidence of the
contents of the rest
D.Documentary evidence of the
contents of the rest
Answer: Option B
72.
Estoppel is a rule of
A.Civil action
B.Criminal action
C.Both civil and criminal
action
D.Only B and not A
Answer: Option A
73.
When the Court obtains a
sample of handwriting or signature of a person under Section 73 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872, the Court
A.Itself may compare the same
B.Itself may compare the same
or may refer it to an expert under Section 45
C.Can not refer it to an
expert under Section 45
D.Must refer the same to an
expert under Section 45
Answer: Option B
74.
Which one of the following
statements is correct?
In a trial of 'A' for the murder of 'B', marks on the ground produced by a
struggle at or near the place of murder is a fact
A.Forming part of the same
transaction
B.Necessary to explain or
introduce relevant fact
C.Showing existenceof state
of mind or of body
D.As to the occasion, cause
or effect of facts in issue
Answer: Option D
75.
What is evidentiary value of
admission?
A.Unimportant
B.Conclusive proof
C.As estoppel
D.Binding
Answer: Option C
76.
The general rule is that
admissions are proved against the maker. Which of the following Provisions of
the Evidence Act provide for exception to the rule?
A.Section 17
B.Section 18
C.Section 21
D.Section 32
Answer: Option C
77.
Which one of the following
Sections of Indian Evidence Act deals with relevancy of opinion as to digital
signature?
A.Section 48-A
B.Section 46-A
C.Section 49-A
D.Section 47-A
Answer: Option D
78.
What are privileged Document?
A.Statement in departmental
enquiry
B.Any communication between
Chief Minister and Governor of State
C.The accident register kept
by a medical practitioner
D.A defamatory imputation
about a person in the instructions to an advocate
Answer: Option D
79.
Documentary Evidence is
included in the Act under
A.Section 3
B.Section 53
C.Section 65
D.Section 8
Answer: Option A
80.
Which provision of Indian
Evidence Act stipulates that the fact of a woman being habituated to sexual
intercourse will not be relevant on the issue of consent in a prosecution for
rape or outraging the modesty of the said woman?
A.Section 50
B.Section 53-A
C.Section 54
D.Section 51
Answer: Option B
A party can ask Questions to his own witness under which section of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872?
A.Section 156
B.Section 154
C.Section 158
D.Section 160
Answer: Option B
82.
Any person' in Section 106 of
the Indian Evidence Act, refers to
A.A party to the suit
B.A stranger to the suit
C.A witness
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
83.
Under which Section of the
Indian Evidence Act the words "facts not otherwise relevant, becomes
relevant" are provided?
A.Section 9
B.Section 11
C.Section 12
D.Section 14
Answer: Option B
84.
Under Section 114-A of Indian
Evidence Act, presumption deals with
A.Presumption as to abetment
of suicide by a married woman
B.Judicial and Official acts
have been regularly performed
C.Presumption as to dowry
death
D.Presumption as to absence
of consent in certain prosecution for rape
Answer: Option D
85.
Assertion (A): An admission can be
used against a co-defendant.
Reason
(R): An admission binds the maker of it. It may be used in
his favour as well.
Select the correct answer:
A.Both A and R are true and R
is the correct explanation of A
B.Both A and R are true but R
is not the correct explanation of A
C.A is true but R is false
D.A is false but R is true
Answer: Option C
86.
Which of the following is
required to be proved essentially?
A.Judicial notice
B.Admitted fact
C.Confession
D.Relevant fact
Answer: Option D
87.
Which Section of based on
'plea of alibi'?
A.Section 7
B.Section 26
C.Section 49
D.Section 11
Answer: Option D
88.
A is accused before the Court
of Session of attempting to murder of a police officer whilst on his trial
before B, a Sessions Judge
A.A can be examine as to what
occurred
B.A cannot examined as to
what occurred
C.A questions cannot be asked
to A
D.A cannot be administered
oath
Answer: Option A
89.
Which Section of the Indian
Evidence Act, removes the bar of doctrine that husband and wife are one person
in law?
A.Section 122
B.Section 119
C.Section 120
D.Section 123
Answer: Option C
90.
Provisions Section 32(1) of
Evidence Act are attracted, where-what is not true?
A.The cause of death is
required to be ascertained
B.The deceased statement is
related to the cause of death
C.To circumstances connected
with death
D.Verbal statement is not
admissible
Answer: Option D
91.
Facts not otherwise relevant
become relevant if they are inconsistent or makes highly probable or improbable
any fact-In-issue or a relevant fact
A.Cannot be relevant
B.Relevant U/s 11 of Evidence
Act
C.Relevant U/s 9 of Evidence
Act
D.Relevant U/s 7 of Evidence
Act
Answer: Option B
92.
Husband and wife both are
competent witness for and against each other:
A.In civil proceedings
B.In criminal proceedings
C.In both civil and criminal
proceedings
D.Neither in civil nor in
criminal proceedings
Answer: Option C
93.
Which of the following is a
public document?
A.A post-mortem report
B.An insurance policy
C.A panchnama prepared by a
police officer
D.A private waqf deed
Answer: Option D
94.
Admissions
A.Must be in writing
B.Must be oral
C.Either oral or in writing
D.Only in writing and not
oral
Answer: Option C
95.
Which of the following
sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with conclusive proof?
A.41, 112 and 113
B.112
C.113
D.112 and 113
Answer: Option A
96.
Previous conviction of a
person is relevant under
A.Explanation (i) of Section
14 of Indian Evidence Act
B.Explanation (ii) of Section
14 of Indian Evidence Act
C.Explanation (iii) of
Section 14 of Indian Evidence Act
D.Explanation (iv) of Section
14 of Indian Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
97.
Relevancy and admissibility
under the Indian Evidence Act are
A.Synonymous
B.Co-extensive
C.Neither synonymous nor
co-extensive
D.Synonymous and co-extensive
both
Answer: Option C
98.
The opinion of an Expert is
relevant under
A.Section 45 of the Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 46 of the Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 47 of the Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 48 of the Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
99.
Out of following which is the
correct order of cross examination of witness:
A.Re-examination, examination
in chief, cross examination
B.Cross examination,
re-examination, examination in chief
C.Examination in chief, cross
examination, re-examination
D.Cross examination,
examination in chief, re-examination
Answer: Option C
100.
The Law of Evidence consists
of which one of the following?
A.Ordinary rules of reasoning
B.Legal rules of evidence
C.Rules of logic
D.All of the above
Answer: Option B
Which is not public document?
A.Record
of Tribunal
B.Record
of Municipal Board
C.Memorandum
of Association of a company
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option D
2.
The
calling of at least one attesting witness to prove a document under Section 68
of the Indian Evidence Act is not necessary
A.When
the document other than a Will is registered under the Indian Registration Act,
1908
B.When
the document including Will is registered under the Indian Registration Act,
1908
C.When
the document irrespective of whether it is a Will, is registered under the
Indian Registration Act, 1908
D.Both
A and C are correct
Answer: Option A
3.
'Not
proved' means
A.It
is not proved
B.It
has been disproved
C.It
is neither proved nor disproved
D.It
is denied
Answer: Option C
4.
Indian
Evidence Act: A statement recorded by Investigation Officer under section 161
Criminal Procedure Code can be used:
A.For
contradiction
B.For
corroboration
C.To
refresh the memory of a witness
D.None
of these
Answer: Option A
5.
Presumption
under Section 112 of the Evidence Act is raised
A.When
a child is born during the continuance of valid marriage
B.When
a child is born within 280 days of dissolution of marriage, the mother
remaining unmarried
C.In
both A and B
D.Neither
A nor B
Answer: Option C
6.
Which
of the following is not a leading case on dying declaration:
A.Khushal
Rao v. Bombay
B.Moti
Singh v. Uttar Pradesh
C.R.
v. Jenkins
D.Deep
Chand v. Rajasthan
Answer: Option D
7.
Answer
with the help of code. Handwriting may be proved by
1. Evidence of the writer himself.
2. Opinion of the expert.
3. Evidence of the person acquainted with the handwriting.
4. The court under Section 73, Evidence Act.
A.Only
1 and 2 are correct
B.Only
2, 3 and 4 are correct
C.Only
1 and 4 are correct
D.1,
2, 3 and 4 are correct
Answer: Option D
8.
Under
the law of evidence, the relevant fact
A.Must
be logically relevant
B.Must
be legally relevant
C.Must
be legally and logically relevant
D.Must
be legally and logically relevant and admissible
Answer: Option B
9.
Under
section 41 of Evidence Act the presumption is with respect to
A.Judgments
in rem when they are inter-partes
B.Judgment
in rem whether such judgments are inter-partes or not
C.Judgments
in personam
D.All
the above
Answer: Option B
10.
Which
one of the following is not essential condition for admissibility of dying
declaration?
A.Death
of the person making dying declaration
B.Statement
must be as to the cause of his death
C.Person
making statement was under expectation of death at the time he made the
statement
D.Statement
is as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted into his
death
Answer: Option C
.
All persons shall be
competent to testify unless the Court considers that they are prevented from
understanding the questions put to them, or from giving rational answers to
those questions, by tender years, extreme old age, disease, whether of body or
mind or any other cause of the same kind is
A.Child witness
B.Adult witness
C.Dumb witness
D.Lunatic witness
Answer: Option A
12.
Which of the following is
true;
A.There cannot be further
cross-examination after re-examination
B.There can be further
cross-examination after re-examination as per Section 137
C.There can be further
cross-examination after re-examination as per Section 138
D.There can be further
cross-examination after re-examination as per Section 139
Answer: Option C
13.
The term "police
custody" used under Section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 means
which one of the following?
A.Physical presence of the
police before an accused person
B.Indirect control by the
police of an accused person
C.Some restrictions by the
police over accused person
D.Some kind of surveillance
and restrictions over the accused person by the police
Answer: Option D
14.
The case of Sharad Chandra
Dey v. Gopala Chandra Laha deals with:
A.Identification parade
B.Estoppel
C.Parole Evidence Rule
D.Competency of witnesses
Answer: Option B
15.
Any question suggesting the
answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called
A.Indecent question
B.Scandalous question
C.Question intended to annoy
D.Leading question
Answer: Option D
16.
A confession by an accused
can be used against a co-accused under Section 30 of Evidence Act-
A.As hearsay evidence
B.Only as corroborative
evidence
C.As substantive evidence
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
17.
"Character as affecting damages"
has been discussed in which one of the following sections?
A.Section 55 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
B.Section 56 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
C.Section 57 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
D.Section 58 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Option A
18.
A' sues 'B' for a libel
imputing disgraceful conduct to 'A'. 'B' affirms that the matter alleged to be
libelous is true. The position and relations of the parties at the time when
the libel was published may be relevant-
A.As constituting a motive
for fact in issue
B.As conduct influenced by
fact in issue
C.As introductory to facts in
issue
D.As preparation for fact in
issue
Answer: Option C
19.
What essential change was
made in section 154 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 vide Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act, 2005
A.Two statements sought to be
contradicted in addition should be drawn to previous statement
B.The party is entitled to
rely on any part of the evidence of the witness to whom he has called to put
any question to him, which might be put in cross-examination by the adverse
party
C.Corroborating a witness by
questioning him on surrounding circumstances
D.Former statement of witness
may be proved to corroborate later testimony as to same fact
Answer: Option B
20.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872 questions relating to a matter not relevant to the suit or proceedings may
be asked under
A.Section 146
B.Section 147
C.Section 148
D.Such questions cannot be
asked
Answer: Option C
Previous statements for the purpose of contradicting a witness under Section
145 do not include
A.Statement made by a witness
as accused in a previous case
B.Letter written by him
C.Deposition in another case
D.Admission made by him in a
written statement
Answer: Option A
22.
Legitimacy of child born
during valid marriage is presumed under which Provision of the Indian Evidence
Act?
A.Section-115
B.Section-114
C.Section-112
D.Section-113
Answer: Option C
23.
Oral evidence is allowed:
A.Only when it is given in Court
B.Even if it is given either
in the Court or elsewhere
C.When it is given both in
trial and investigation
D.When it is given before a
police officer in investigation
Answer: Option A
24.
In criminal trials, the
accused has to establish his plea for the mitigation or justification of an
offence
A.Substantially
B.Beyond reasonable doubt
C.Prima facie
D.None of these
Answer: Option C
25.
The Court may presume,
A.That when a document
creating an obligation is in the hands of the obligor, the obligation has been
discharged
B.That an accomplice is
unworthy of credit unless he is corroborated in material particulars
C.That judicial and official
acts have been regularly performed and that a bill of exchange, accepted or
endorsed was accepted or endorsed for good consideration and that judicial and
official acts have been regularly performed and that the common course of
business have been followed in particular cases and that evidence which could
be and is not produced would, if produced, be unfavourable to the person who
withholds it and that if a man refuses to answer a question which he is not
compelled to answer by la
D.All of the above
26.
Whether confession made to a
Police Officer (while not in custody) by a person accused of an offence can be
proved against him and is a . . . . . . . . evidence.
A.Admissible
B.Not admissible
C.Partially admissible
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
27.
In which of the following
circumstances the court will not allow oral agreement to be given in evidence
for the purpose of varying, contradicting, adding to or subtracting from the
terms of contract proved by production of the document, as per the provisions
of the Indian Evidence Act
A.When there exists a
separate oral agreement as to any matter on which a document is silent
B.When there exists any
separate oral agreement constituting a condition precedent to attaching of any
obligation under any such contract
C.When there exists any
distinct subsequent oral agreement to rescind or modify any such contract
D.When there is an oral
agreement which seeks to clarity the terms of the contract that are unambiguous
Answer: Option D
28.
The Indian Evidence Act,
1872, does not apply to:
A.Proceedings before
arbitrators
B.Departmental proceedings
C.Disciplinary proceedings in
educational institutions
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
29.
The case of Kashmira Singh v.
State of Madhya Pradesh relates to-
A.Dying declaration
B.Privileged communication
C.Confession to police
officer
D.Confession of a co-accused
Answer: Option D
30.
A dying declaration is
admissible
A.Only in criminal
proceedings
B.Only in civil proceedings
C.Both in civil as well as
criminal proceedings
D.In criminal proceedings
alone and not in civil proceedings
Answer: Option C
Dying declaration may be made to a
A.Doctor
B.Magistrate
C.Any other person
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
32.
The contents of electronic
records may be proved under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in accordance with the
provisions of:
A.Section 65C
B.Section 65B
C.Section 66B
D.Section 66C
Answer: Option B
33.
Which one of the following
sections of Indian Evidence Act contains provisions regarding cross-examination
of witnesses to character?
A.Section 140
B.Section 141
C.Section 142
D.Section 139
Answer: Option A
34.
A person, after committing
Crime, confesses while intoxicated the commission of crime. Under Indian
Evidence Act, this confession is relevant and admissible in:
A.Section 29
B.Section 30
C.Section 31
D.Section 32
Answer: Option A
35.
The burden of proof generally
lies on
A.Prosecution
B.Accused
C.The discretion of the court
D.On both
Answer: Option A
36.
The Court draws a presumption
of legitimacy when any person is bom during the continuance of a valid marriage
between his mother and any man
This presumption is relevant under Section 112 of the Evidence Act when there
is a dispute relating to the
A.Maternity of the child
B.Paternity of the child
C.Both maternity and
paternity
D.Guardianship of the child
Answer: Option B
37.
Which of the following
section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with certified copies of public
documents?
A.Section 80
B.Section 82
C.Section 76
D.Section 80
Answer: Option C
38.
Which is not the main
principle that underlies the Law of Evidence?
A.The best evidence must be
given in all cases
B.Evidence must be confined
to the matters in issue
C.Hearsay evidence must not
be admitted
D.Hearsay evidence must be
admitted
Answer: Option D
39.
In which section of the
Indian Evidence Act, provisions relating to Electronic Agreements are given?
A.Section - 85
B.Section 85-A
C.Section - 85 B
D.Section 86
Answer: Option A
40.
According to the Indian
Evidence Act, which one among the following is irrelevant?
A.Evidence of previous good
character in criminal cases
B.Evidence of previous bad
character in reply to evidence of previous good character in criminal cases
C.Evidence of character to
prove the imputed conduct in civil cases
D.Evidence of character to
prove the imputed conduct in civil cases except when relevant
Answer: Option C
Which of the following is a primary evidence:
A.Copies made from and
compared with the original
B.Counterpart of document as
against the parties who did not execute them
C.Counterpart of a document
as against the parties who executed it
D.Certified copies of a
document
Answer: Option C
42.
Under which section of the Indian
Evidence Act a witness has been given right to refresh his memory
A.Section 157
B.Section 158
C.Section 159
D.Section 160
Answer: Option C
43.
Privileged communication
during marriage in dealt in
A.Section 122 Indian Evidence
Act
B.Section 123 Indian Evidence
Act
C.Section 112 Indian Evidence
Act
D.Section 113 Indian Evidence
Act
Answer: Option A
44.
Which Section in the Evidence
Act confers power on the trial court to put any question to any witness?
A.Section 166
B.Section 167
C.Section 165
D.Section 163
Answer: Option C
45.
Which one of the following is
a 'fact'?
A.Sohan saw a cow
B.Mohan said Sohan to go
C.Sheetal has a high
reputation
D.All of these
Answer: Option D
46.
Select the most appropriate
statement.
A.A child born during
marriage is a conclusive proof of legitimacy
B.A child born during
marriage may be presumed as legitimate child
C.A child born during
marriage shall be considered as a conclusive proof of legitimacy unless
rebutted
D.No presumption will be
drawn about a child born during marriage
Answer: Option C
47.
Under Section 63 of the
Indian Evidence Act, secondary evidence includes:
1. Certified copies
2. Copies made from the original by mechanical processes, and copies compared
with such copies
3. Copies made from or compared with the original
4. Counterparts of documents, as against the parties who did not execute them
5. Oral accounts of the contents of a document by a person who has seen it
A.1, 3 and 4
B.2, 3 and 4
C.1, 2 and 5
D.All of these
Answer: Option D
48.
Which of the following is not
a hearsay evidence?
A.Statement of police that on
the basis of inquiry conducted by him that accused was not at home on the night
of incident
B.Report of the newspaper
C.Report prepared on the
basis of the information provided by the officer
D.Statement of witness to
prove the relationship between the persons
Answer: Option A
49.
Which of the following case
is not related to the confession?
A.Pulukuri Kotayya v. King
Emperor
B.State of Uttar Pradesh v.
Devman Upadhyay
C.State of Bombay v. Kathi
Kaloo
D.T. J. Ponnan v. M. C.
Verghese
Answer: Option D
50.
Leading questions can be
asked during
A.Examination-in-chief
B.Cross-examination
C.Re-examination
D.All of the above
Answer: Option B
Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
evidence as to affairs of State?
A.Section 123
B.Section 121
C.Section 120
D.Section 122
Answer: Option A
52.
Which one of the following
statements is not correct in relation to documentary evidence?
A.Where a document is
executed in several parts, each part is primary evidence
B.A counterpart is a primary
evidence against a person who has not signed it
C.Oral accounts of the
contents of document is secondary evidence
D.A document must be proved
by its primary evidence except where a party is entitled to give secondary
evidence thereof
Answer: Option D
53.
Which Provision of the
Evidence Act provides that birth during marriage is conclusive proof of
legitimacy?
A.Section 110
B.Section 111
C.Section 112
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
54.
Character of a person for
purposes of the law of evidence is not relevant in one of the following
situations-
A.Previous good character of
the accused in criminal cases
B.Previous bad character in
reply to evidence of good characterin criminal cases
C.Character as affecting the
amount of damages in civil cases
D.Character to prove conduct
imputed in civil cases
Answer: Option D
55.
Which of the following is not
a 'Public Document' within the meaning of Evidence Act?
A.Decree passed in a civil
suit
B.Caste certificate issued by
the competent authority
C.Judgment of High Court
D.Injury certificate issued
by a Medical Practitioner
Answer: Option D
56.
Leading question-
A.May be asked in examination
in-chief
B.May be asked in
cross-examination
C.May be asked in
re-examination
D.Cannot be asked in any
circumstances
Answer: Option B
57.
Which Section of the Indian
Evidence Act is not on 'shifting of burden of proof'?
A.Section 101
B.Section 102
C.Section 105
D.Section 108
Answer: Option A
58.
The following can be proved
by oral evidence
A.Contents of a document
B.Electronic statement
C.All facts except A
D.Anything and everything
Answer: Option C
59.
Relevancy of facts forming
part of the same transaction forms a part of Section . . . . . . . . of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
Answer: Option C
60.
Which one of the following
statements is not correct?
Refreshing memory by a witness under Section 159 of the Evidence Act means
A.Referring to any writings
made by the witness
B.Referring to any writings
made by any other person and read by the witness
C.Referring to any copy of
the document by the witness with court permission
D.Referring to another
witness for taking his assistance
Answer: Option D
In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India held that the rule
of prudence requires that the evidence of an accomplice should ordinarily be
corroborated by some other evidence:
A.Francis Stanly v.
Intelligence Officer, AIR 2007 SC 794
B.Youaraj Rai v. Chander
Bahadur Karki, AIR 2007 SC 561
C.Kamla Devi v. Khushal
Kanuiar, AIR 2007 SC 663
D.Bablu v. State of
Rajasthan, AIR 2006 SC 115
Answer: Option A
62.
Section 27 of the Indian
Evidence Act is based on
A.Doctrine of agency
B.Doctrine of proportionality
C.Doctrine of confirmation by
subsequent events
D.Doctrine of eclipse
Answer: Option C
63.
Sections 40 to 44 of the
Indian Evidence Act deal with the relevance of:
A.Characters
B.Opinion of third persons
C.Judgements, decree and
orders
D.Statements made under
special circumstances
Answer: Option C
64.
Whenever it is provided in
the Indian Evidence Act that the Court may presume a fact
A.May call for proof of that
fact
B.The court is bound to
regard that fact as proved
C.The parties can presume
that fact as proved
D.That fact is conclusive
proof
Answer: Option A
65.
Under section 9 of Evidence
Act
A.The identification parades
of suspects are relevant
B.The identification parades
of chattels are relevant
C.Both A and B are relevant
D.Only A and not B is
relevant
Answer: Option C
66.
Which of the following
section of the Indian Evidence Act does not apply to interrogations by a
Customs Officer exercising power under Section 171-A of the Sea Customs Act?
A.Section 131
B.Section 132
C.Section 133
D.Section 134
Answer: Option B
67.
In which one of the following
cases, the Supreme Court held that confession of co-accused are very weak
evidence and no conviction can be based solely on such confession?
A.Nathu v. State of Uttar
Pradesh
B.Ram Prakash v. State of
Punjab
C.Kashmira Singh v. State of
Madhya Pradesh
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
68.
The statements of dead
persons are relevant under which provision
A.Section 13(a)
B.Section 32(1)
C.Section 48
D.Section 49
Answer: Option B
69.
Important case related to
'Identification Parade' is
A.Ramnathan v. State of Tamil
Nadu
B.Ram Lochan v. State of West
Bengal
C.Queen Empress v. Abdullah
D.All of these
Answer: Option A
70.
Who among the following is
competent to adduce evidence under Indian Evidence Act?
1. Dumb witness
2. Deaf witness
Select the correct answer:
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: Option C
71.
When can a person prove his
own statement constituting admission or it may be proved on his behalf?
A.When it is relevant as
dying declaration
B.When it is relevant as
admission
C.When it is relevant as
confession
D.When it is only an oral
admission as to content electronic record
Answer: Option A
72.
Which of the following is not
an example of public document?
A.Letters between authorities
B.Electoral list
C.Insurance Policy
D.Order sheet in a case
Answer: Option C
73.
What is re-examination of a
witness?
A.Recalling the witness
B.Repeated examination of the
witness
C.Cross examination of one's
own witness
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
74.
Confession recorded by a
Magistrate on oath is
A.Admissible
B.Inadmissible
C.Admissible only to the
extent of corroboration to the other evidence on record
D.Admissible if corroborated
by other evidence on record
Answer: Option B
75.
A statement to become
relevant under Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act as dying declaration
should have been made under which of the following circumstances?
A.It should have been made in
relation to the succession to his property after his death
B.It should have been made
under imminent expectation of death
C.It should be in relation to
the cause of his death or circumstances of the transaction that resulted in his
death
D.It should have been made in
the will executed by him
Answer: Option C
76.
Oral admission as to contents
of electronic records are provided under the Indian Evidence Act in
A.Section 20
B.Section 23
C.Section 22A
D.Section 22B
Answer: Option C
77.
In which of the following
cases constitutionality of Section 73 of the Evidence Act was challenged for
violation of Article 20(3) of the Constitution?
A.State of Bombay v.
Kathikalu
B.Rattan Singh v. Himachal
Pradesh
C.Kashmira Singh v. State of
Madhya Pradesh
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
78.
In the law of evidence, a
'retracted confession'
A.Is of no value
B.Is alone sufficientfor
conviction
C.Can be acted upon, but as a
matter of prudence the court must look for some corroboration from other facts
and evidences
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
79.
Under section 14 of Evidence
Act - Explanation I
A.Evidence of general
disposition, habit or tendencies is inadmissible
B.Evidence having a distinct
and immediate reference to the particular matter in question is admissible
C.Both A and B are correct
D.Both A and B are incorrect
Answer: Option C
80.
Indian Evidence Act: 'A' and
'B' were jointly tried for the murder of 'C'. During the trial 'A' said . . . .
. . . . "B" and I murdered 'C'. What is the nature of this evidence
against 'B'?
A.Substantive evidence
B.Corroborative evidence
C.Hearsay evidence
D.Direct evidence
Answer: Option B
81.
The word "Primary and
Secondary evidence" is part of
A.Law of procedure
B.Principles of fair play
C.Law of evidence
D.Banking and Security Law
Answer: Option C
82.
Which one of the following is
a leading case on entries in books of account when relevant?
A.R v. Govinda
B.Pakla Narayan Swamy v. King
Emperor
C.Moti Singh v. State of
Uttar Pradesh
D.L. K. Advani v. C. B. I.
(Central Bureau of Investigation)
Answer: Option D
83.
Which provision of the
Evidence Act relates to admissibility of Electronic Records in evidence?
A.Section 64
B.Section 65
C.Section 65A and 65B
D.Section 66
Answer: Option C
84.
A written contract is proved
as per Section 91 of the Indian Evidence Act. Can the terms thereof be proved
to have been altered by a contemporaneous oral agreement by a third party to
the written contract?
A.Terms of a written contract
can never be varied
B.The oral agreement can be
proved to vary the terms of the written contract only if the original written
contract is lost or destroyed
C.The terms of the written
contract are only binding between the parties to the document but a third party
to the written contract can always show contemporaneous oral agreement to vary
the terms of the written contract
D.A third party cannot lead
evidence to vary the terms of a written contract as he was not a party to the
contract
Answer: Option C
85.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I |
List
II |
|
a. Confession caused by
inducement, threat, promise |
1. Aghnoo Nagesia v. State |
|
b. Confession to a customs
officer |
2. State of Punjab v.
Barkatram |
|
c. Confession in the FIR
(First information Report) given by the accused |
3. Pyarelal Bhargava v.
State of Rajasthan |
|
d. Discovery of a fact
pursuant to a statement in police custody |
4. State of Bombay v. Kathi
Kalu Oghad |
A.a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
B.a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
C.a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
D.a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
Answer: Option D
86.
"A" the admissions
are confessions but all the confessions are not admissions."
A.The statement is correct
B.The statement is incorrect
C.The statement is partly
correct and partly incorrect
D.All the above statements
are incorrect
Answer: Option B
87.
Where in a judicial
proceeding the handwriting of a teacher is in question, the opinion of his or
her student shall be relevant under . . . . . . . . of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872?
A.Section 45
B.Section 47
C.Section 46
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
88.
Which one of the following
Section Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been inserted by Section 92 and
schedule II of the Information Technology Act, 2000?
A.Section 65
B.Section 154(2)
C.Section 67A
D.Section 67
Answer: Option C
89.
According to Section 60, Oral
Evidence must be-
A.Suitable
B.Satisfactory
C.Obtained
D.Direct
Answer: Option D
90.
Evidentiary value of a dying
declaration
A.A convictioncan be made
only after corroboration
B.A conviction can be made
even without corroboration
C.It has no evidentiary value
D.It is a very weak evidence
Answer: Option B
Which of the following facts are required to be proved?
A.All laws in force in the
territory of India
B.Public festivals and
holidays notified in Official Gazette
C.The rules of the road
D.None of the above
Answer: Option D
92.
List of facts of which the
judicial notice has to be taken under section 57 of Evidence Act
A.Is exhaustive
B.Is illustrative only
C.Is both A and B
D.Is neither A nor B
Answer: Option B
93.
Under the Indian Evidence
Act, if attesting witness denies the execution of document then:
A.Its execution may be proved
by other evidence
B.Its execution cannot be
proved by other evidence
C.Court shall compel the
witness to admit the execution
D.Its execution shall be
proved by documentary evidence only
Answer: Option A
94.
Which of the following is
correct in respect of determining the date of birth of A?
A.A letter from A's deceased
father to a friend, announcing the birth of A is a relevant fact
B.A letter from A's deceased
father to a friend, announcing the birth of A is not a relevant fact
C.A letter from A's deceased
father to a friend, announcing the birth of A is not admissible in evidence
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
95.
A witness in a criminal case
was contradicted under Section 145 Evidence Act with the statement of another
witness made in the course of the investigation. The procedure is
A.Regular
B.Proper
C.Legal
D.Illegal
Answer: Option D
96.
Contents of a document may be
proved under Section 61 of the Evidence Act:
A.By primary evidence
B.By secondary evidence
C.Either by primary or by
secondary evidence
D.Only by primary evidence
and not by secondary evidence
Answer: Option C
97.
The Draft of Indian Evidence
Act, 1872 was prepared by
A.Lord Macaulay
B.Sir James F. Stephen
C.Huxley
D.Sir Henery Maine
Answer: Option B
98.
During continuance of
possession of immovable property the person in possession is estopped from
denying the title to such immovable property of the person who put him in such
possession, if:
A.The possession is as a
tenant
B.The possession is as a
licencee
C.The person in possession is
in unauthorized occupation
D.Both A and B
Answer: Option D
99.
Dumb witness may give his
evidence by writing or signs in open court such evidence shall be deemed to be:
A.Written Evidence
B.Oral Evidence
C.Not admissible in evidence
D.In depends on the
discretion of the court to accept it is or not
Answer: Option B
100.
Indecent and scandalous
questions may be forbidden by the court under;
A.Section 149
B.Section 150
C.Section 151
D.Section 152
Answer: Option C
1.
The
Indian Evidence Act deals with
A.Presumptio
juris' only
B.Presumptio
huminis' only
C.Both
A and B
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option C
2.
Section
13 of Evidence Act applies to
A.Corporal
rights
B.Incorporal
rights
C.Both
corporal and incorporal rights
D.Neither
A nor B
Answer: Option C
3.
A
person is said to give 'false evidence', if he
A.Being
legally bound by an oath, or by an express provision of law to state the truth
B.Being
bound by law to make a declaration upon any subject makes nay statement which
is false
C.Being
bound by law to make a declaration upon any subject which he either knows or
believes to be false, or does not believe to be true
D.All
of the above
Answer: Option B
4.
The
doctrine of estoppel is contained in
A.Section
115 of Evidence Act
B.Section
114 of Evidence Act
C.Section
113 of Evidence Act
D.Section
112 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
5.
A
is accused of waging a war against the Government of India by taking part in an
armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attached and
jails are broken open. A is not present at all of them yet the occurrence of
these facts is relevant because they.
A.Constitute
a motive for a relevant fact
B.Show
preparation for relevant facts
C.Are
effect of relevant fact
D.Form
part of a single transaction
Answer: Option D
6.
Certified
copies are considered as
A.Secondary
evidence
B.Primary
evidence
C.Accepted
evidence
D.Invalid
form of evidence
Answer: Option A
7.
Under
which Section of the Evidence Act, a Judge cannot be compelled to answer any
question as to his own conduct in court as such Judge:
A.Section
123
B.Section
122
C.Section
121
D.Section
120
Answer: Option C
8.
A'
is a accused before a Court of Sessions of attempting to murder a police
officer whilst on his trial before 'B', a Sessions Judge. Can 'B' be examined
as a witness under the above situations as to what has occurred in his
presence?
A.May
be examined as to what occurred
B.Cannot
be examined as to what occurred
C.Can
be examined but only with the permission of the Higher Court
D.Can
be examined only if the Session Judge consents
Answer: Option A
9.
The
evidence relating to conspiracy is
A.Common
motive of the conspirators and any act done in pursuance of it
B.Common
intention of the conspirators and anything in writing in pursuance of it
C.Common
intention of the conspirators and anything said, done, written by any of them
in furtherance of that intention
D.Common
motive of the conspirators and the statement of a witness
Answer: Option C
10.
The
case of Chilikuri Venkateswarlu v. Venkata Narayana deals with:
A.Estoppel
B.Affairs
of State
C.Proof
of Legitimacy
D.Dying
Declaration
Answer: Option C
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I |
List
II |
|
a. Bloodstains and blood
group |
1. Reg v. Dodson |
|
b. Automatic camera |
2. State of Gujarat v.
Chhota Lal Patni |
|
c. Tape-recorded statement |
3. B v. Attorney General |
|
d. Handwriting |
4. Yusufalli v. State of
Maharashtra |
A.a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
B.a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
C.a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
D.a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
Answer: Option C
12.
Where a thirty years old
document is produced before the Court, it may presume
A.That the facts stated in
the document are proved
B.That the document is duly
executed
C.That the content of it are
proved
D.All the above
Answer: Option B
13.
The examination of a witness
by the party who calls him shall be called as
A.Advocate
B.Examination-In-Chief
C.Re-Examination
D.Cross-Examination
Answer: Option B
14.
A discovery of fact under
section 27 of Evidence Act includes
A.The object produced
B.The place from which the
object is produced
C.Knowledge of the accused to
existence of that object
D.All of these
Answer: Option D
15.
Necessity rule as to
admissibility of evidence has been given under which section of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
A.Section 65B
B.Section 33
C.Section 32
D.Section 31
Answer: Option C
16.
Which of the following does
not find a mention as showing state of mind under Section 14 of the Evidence
Act, 1872?
A.Ill will
B.Motive
C.Good faith
D.Negligence
Answer: Option B
17.
Presumption under the law of
evidence are-
A.Presumption of facts
B.Presumption of law
C.Both A and B
D.Only B and not A
Answer: Option C
18.
Presumption of surviorship'
is contained in:
A.Section 106 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
B.Section 107 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
C.Section 108 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
D.Section 109 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Option B
19.
A policy of insurance is
affected on goods "in ships from Calcutta to London" The goods are
shipped in a particular ship which has been lost. The fact that particular ship
was orally excepted from the policy:
A.Can be proved
B.Cannot be proved
C.Can be partly proved
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
20.
The public documents can be
proved by
A.Certified copies
B.Evidence of the person who
has written the certified copy
C.Oral evidence
D.All ofthe above
Answer: Option D
21.
Which of the following are
Public Documents?
A.Documents of Sovereign
Authority
B.Documents of Official
bodies
C.Documents of Tribunals
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
22.
The conduct of accused is
relevant under
A.Section 8 Indian Evidence
Act
B.Section 10 Indian Evidence
Act
C.Section 11 Indian Evidence
Act
D.Section 12 Indian Evidence
Act
Answer: Option A
23.
Declaration by a person, not
able to be called as witness, in the course of business is admissible under:
A.Section 32(1) of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
B.Section 32(2) of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
C.Section 32(4) of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
D.Section 32(7) of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Option B
24.
Consider the following
statements:
1. In criminal proceedings good character of the accused is always relevant
2. In criminal proceedings bad character of the accused is always relevant
3. In a civil case evidence of character of any person concerned is always
admissible
4. A previous conviction is relevant as evidence of bad character
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A.2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.1 and 4
D.1, 2 and 3
Answer: Option C
25.
Under which Section of the
Indian Evidence Act the principle of 'Res Gestae' is given?
A.Section 12
B.Section 6
C.Section 2
D.Section 15
Answer: Option B
26.
In respect of a certified
copy, thirty years old, which fulfills all the conditions laid under Section 90
of the Indian Evidence Act, the court
A.Shall presume
B.May presume
C.Will not presume
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
27.
Provisions relating to
estoppel are given in
A.Chapter 7 of the Evidence
Act
B.Chapter 8 of the Evidence
Act
C.Chapter 9 of the Evidence
Act
D.Chapter 10 of the Evidence
Act
Answer: Option B
28.
Which one of the following
does not fall within the meaning of the term 'Court' used under Indian Evidence
Act, 1872?
A.Revenue Tribunal
B.Industrial Tribunal
C.Registrar's Court
D.Enquiry Commission, Legal Advisor
and Excise Officer
Answer: Option D
29.
A fact is relevant
A.If it is mentioned in the
pleadings
B.If it is mentioned in the
document relied by any of the parties
C.If it is connected with a
fact in issue so as to form part of the same transaction
D.All of the above
Answer: Option C
30.
Which final judgement, order
or decree of a Competent Court, among the following is a judgement in rem?
A.In a money suit
B.In a suit for permanent
injunction
C.In exercise of matrimonial
or insolvency jurisdiction
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
That there are
certain objects arranged in a certain order in a certain place-
A.Is a fact
B.Is an opinion
C.Is a document
D.Is a motive
Answer: Option A
32.
A is accused of the murder of
B. At his trial, which of the following will not be a fact in issue?
A.That A intended to cause
B's death
B.That A had received grave
and sudden provocation from B
C.That A caused B's death by
beating B with a club
D.That A had gone to field
with a club
Answer: Option D
33.
A Photostat copy of a
document without attestation cannot be accepted as a secondary evidence,
because
A.Such copy is not a
secondary evidence in strict senpse
B.The procedure of photostat
does not ensure its accuracy
C.Section 65 of the Evidence
Act does not permit its admissibility
D.Certified copy of a
document is better than a Photostat copy
Answer: Option A
34.
Party calling a person as
witness can cross examine him:
A.As of right
B.With the permission of
court
C.With the consent of witness
D.Not in any circumstance
Answer: Option B
35.
In which case has the Supreme
Court held that material evidence and not the number of witnesses has to be
taken into account to ascertain the truth of the allegation made?
A.Syed Ibrahim v. State of
Andhra Pradesh
B.Kamala Devi v. Kushal
Kanwar
C.Surendra Pratap Tiwari v.
State of Uttar Pradesh
D.Mehmood Yar Khan v.
Laxmikant Pande
Answer: Option A
36.
For recording a confession,
the Magistrate should
A.Get that person arrested
B.Summon the complainant
C.Inform such person about
the accusation against him
D.Inform such person that he
is not bound to make a confession
Answer: Option D
37.
"The Brides in the
Bath" case is based on which Section of Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 16
B.Section 15
C.Section 14
D.Section 11
Answer: Option B
38.
The man who has disappeared
and remained unheard of for seven years by those who would have naturally heard
of him, if he was alive, the presumption then arises that he is dead. What
shall be the presumption as to time of death of such person?
A.The presumption is that the
man died on the date seven years after he was last heard
B.The presumption is that the
man died at the beginning of the particular period during these seven years
C.Those who allege that the
death should be taken to have occurred at a particular time, will have to prove
that fact
D.The presumption is that the
man died on the date of judicial pronouncement
Answer: Option C
39.
Section 105 of the Evidence
Act requires that the Court . . . . . . . . presume the absence of such
circumstances which brings a case within the purview of the General Exceptions
in the Indian Penal Code.
A.Must
B.Shall
C.May
D.Ought to
Answer: Option B
40.
Which one among the following
does not fall into the category of expert evidence?
A.Opinion relating to bullet
by a ballistic expert
B.Opinion relating to forgery
by a hand writing expert
C.Opinion by narcoanalyst
about the condition of mind
D.Opinion by a serologist
about blood
Answer: Option C
The fact that any person was bom during the continuance of a valid marriage
between his mother and any man:
A.Is conclusive proof that he
is the legitimate child of that man
B.Is conclusive proof that he
is the legitimate child of that man unless it can be shown that the parties to
the marriage had no access to each other at any time when the child could have
been begotten
C.Is no proof that the child
is the legitimate child of that man
D.Is no proof of legitimacy
unless proved by other evidence
Answer: Option B
42.
A kills B. A is charged for
murder. In this case burden of proof is on
A.The State
B.A'
C.B's legal representatives
D.Both A and C
Answer: Option D
43.
Under which one of the
following provisions of Indian Evidence Act the words "forming part of the
same transaction" occurs?
A.Section 5
B.Section 6
C.Section 11
D.Section 12
Answer: Option B
44.
If a maker of dying
declaration survives, his statement can be used under Indian Evidence Act,
1872:
1. As substantive evidence
2. To corroborate the testimony of maker if examined
3. To contradict the testimony of maker if examined
4. Cannot be used at all
A.2 and 3
B.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
D.4 only
E.None of the above
Answer: Option A
45.
Which among the following is
not a fact admitted?
A.Facts which the parties
agree to admit at the hearing
B.Facts which the parties
agree in writing to admit before the hearing
C.Facts which by any rule of
pleading are deemed to have been admitted
D.Facts which are uncontested
by the opposite party
Answer: Option D
46.
Statement made in police
custody by the accused amounts to confession when:
A.That part of the statement
which leads to the recovery of the object
B.The statement is made
voluntarily
C.The statement is made in
the presence of the other party
D.The statement is made while
undergoing medical treatment
Answer: Option A
47.
Under section 32(1) of
Evidence Act, statements made by whom of these are relevant?
A.Persons who are dead
B.Persons who are incapable
of giving evidence
C.Persons whose attendance
cannot be procured without delay or expense
D.All of these
Answer: Option A
48.
R. K. Malkani v. State of
Maharashtra is related to which of the following:
A.Relevancy of facts forming
part of same transaction
B.Documentary evidence
C.Leading Question
D.Accomplice
Answer: Option A
49.
Evidence under the Indian
Evidence Act means and includes:
A.Documentary evidence
B.Ocular evidence
C.Both, the ocular and
documentary evidence
D.Ocular evidence based on
documents only
Answer: Option C
50.
The statement of a solitary
witness:
A.Can be relied upon by a
Court
B.Cannot be relied upon by a
Court
C.Can be relied upon if the
Court concludes it to be correct and true
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
51.
Opinion of Handwriting
Expert:
A.Always needs corroboration
B.Is inadmissible in evidence
C.Is always binding on the
courts
D.Can be acted upon without
corroboration
Answer: Option D
52.
Any confession made to a
police is
A.Totally inadmissible
B.Totally admissible
C.Partly admissible
D.Partly inadmissible
Answer: Option A
53.
In the Evidence Act, the
conditions in respect of computer output to be deemed and admissible in
evidence as document is contained in
A.Section 65(B)(4)
B.Section 65(B)(1)
C.Section 65(B)(2)
D.Section 65(B)(5)
Answer: Option C
54.
Which Section of the Indian
Evidence Act provides that the admission can be proved by or on behalf of the
person who makes admission?
A.Section 17
B.Section 18
C.Section 21
D.Section 22
Answer: Option C
55.
"When the previous
commission by the accused of an offence is relevant, the previous conviction of
such person is also a relevant fact." It is laid down in Section . . . . .
. . . of Evidence Act.
A.Section 14, Explanation 1
B.Section 14, Explanation 2
C.Section 15
D.Section 16
Answer: Option B
56.
Which one of the following
statements is not correct?
The Court takes the assistance of experts when it has to form an opinion on
A.A point of foreign law
B.Identity of handwriting
C.Identity of finger
impression
D.Point of Indian law
Answer: Option D
57.
The definition of Court under
the Indian Evidence Act excludes
A.Mediator
B.Conciliator
C.Arbitrator
D.Conciliation Officer
Answer: Option C
58.
Under Section 116 of the
Evidence Act, the tenant is stopped from denying
A.This title to the property
of the actual owner
B.The title to the property
of the landlord
C.Both A and B
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
59.
In which case oral evidence
cannot be given?
A.A' hired lodgings of 'B'
and gives to 'B' a card on which he wrote "Rooms, Rs. 2000/- a
month". 'A' in a suit wants to prove verbal agreement that the terms
included partial board
B.A' hired lodgings of 'B'
for a year. A regularly stamped agreement was drawn up by an attorney and
signed by both of them. The document is silent on the subject of board. 'A' in
a suit wants to prove verbal agreement that the terms included partial board.
C.Both in A and in B
D.Only in A and not B
Answer: Option D
60.
Mark the incorrect statement
A.In civil cases, character
evidence is inadmissible unless the character of a party is a fact in issue
B.In criminal cases, the fact
that the person accused is of a good character is irrelevant
C.A previous conviction is
relevant as evidence of bad character in criminal cases
D.In criminal proceedings,
evidence of bad character is admissible when evidence of good character has
been given
Answer: Option B
Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act the presumption as to abetment
of suicide by a married woman is dealt?
A.Section 113A
B.Section 113B
C.Section 114
D.Section 114B
Answer: Option A
62.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872 which one of the following sections defines admission
A.Section 17
B.Section 18
C.Section 19
D.Section 20
Answer: Option A
63.
Fact judicially noticeable
need not be proved' is given under which section?
A.Section 56
B.Section 57
C.Section 58
D.Section 59
Answer: Option A
64.
Production of documents is
included under
A.Section 145
B.Section 163
C.Section 164
D.Section 162
Answer: Option D
65.
Statement of a person who is
dead or cannot be found is not relevant:
A.When it is made in the
course of business
B.When it is in favour of the
interest of the maker
C.When it relates to the
circumstances of the transaction resulting in his death
D.When it relates to
existence of relationships
Answer: Option B
66.
A child born out of valid
marriage can be proved to be legitimate child of the husband if it is born
within-of its dissolution
A.280 days
B.One year
C.Nine months
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
67.
Relevancy of facts forming
part of same transaction is dealt under which of the following section of the
Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 4
B.Section 6
C.Section 10
D.Section 8
Answer: Option B
68.
Section 114 of the Indian
Evidence Act provides which of the following?
A.The Court may ask questions
to parties
B.The Court may stop
proceedings
C.The Court may presume
existence of certain facts
D.The Court may call upon
extra proof
Answer: Option C
69.
A' is tried for riot and is
proved to have marched at the head of a mob. The cries of the mob are:
A.Irrelevant
B.Relevant but not
explanatory of the nature of the transaction
C.Relevant and explanatory of
the nature of the transaction
D.Hearsay evidence
Answer: Option C
70.
The possession contemplated
under section 110 of Evidence Act is
A.Juridical possession
B.Symbolic possession
C.Actual physical possession
D.All the above
Answer: Option C
1.
Proof of a fact depends on
A.Accuracy of the statement
and not upon the probability of its existence
B.Not upon the accuracy of
the statement but upon the probability of its existence
C.Artificial probative value
assigned to a fact
D.Rigid mathematical
demonstration
Answer: Option B
72.
Which kind of jurisdiction is
not mentioned under Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
A.Probate
B.Admirality
C.Insolvency
D.Revenue
Answer: Option D
73.
The Indian Evidence Act
declares that anything said, done or written by any one of the conspirators is
relevant to prove conspiracy, if it was in:
A.Pursuance of their common
intention
B.Reference to their common
intention
C.Prosecution of their common
intention
D.Redeeming their common
intention
Answer: Option B
74.
The form of Dying Declaration
is
A.Immaterial
B.Material
C.Must be in writing only
D.Must be orally spoken only
Answer: Option A
75.
Mode of proof of custom is
contained under
A.Section 32(4) of the
Evidence Act
B.Section 32(7) of the
Evidence Act
C.Section 48 of the Evidence
Act
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
76.
Evidence Act "Judgment
of a Civil Court is binding on the Criminal Court under all
circumstances". This statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Partly true
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
77.
Persons who can make
admissions are mentioned in
A.Section 17 of Evidence Act
B.Section 20 of Evidence Act
C.Section 19 of Evidence Act
D.Section 18 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option D
78.
Under Section 65, Indian
Evidence Act, which of the following needs to be proved concerning secondary
evidence?
A.Existence of a document
B.Condition of a document
C.Contents of a document
D.All of them
Answer: Option D
79.
To prove the case of 'alibi'
the burden lies on
A.The prosecution
B.The complainant
C.The witness
D.The accused
Answer: Option D
80.
Oral account of the contents
of a document by a person who has seen it is:
A.Testimonial evidence
B.Primary evidence
C.Secondary evidence
D.Circumstantial evidence
Answer: Option C
A' and 'B' are jointly tried for the murder of 'C'. It is proved that 'A' said,
"B and I murdered C" What is the nature of confession against 'B'?
A.Substantive evidence
B.Only corroborate evidence
C.Hearsay evidence
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
82.
During investigation by a
police officer under directions of the Magistrate on complaint of 'A' alleging
criminal misappropriation of his diamond ring by 'B', 'A' produces an invoice
evidencing his title to the property. The invoice is found during investigation
to be fabricated. On closure report, the Magistrate took cognizance and
summoned 'A' to face trial on the charge of fabricating false evidence. The
contentions of 'A' are:
1. The document (invoice) was not given in a judicial proceeding.
2. The police officer has not made a complaint.
A.Both 1 and 2 are correct
B.Only 1 is correct
C.Only 2 is correct
D.Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
Answer: Option D
83.
What secondary evidence can
be given in respect of public document:
A.Oral statement regarding
subject matter
B.Certified copy of the
document
C.Photo copy
D.Written admission
Answer: Option B
84.
Privilege under Section 121
of the Evidence Act is:
A.Not available to an
Arbitrator
B.May or may not available to
an Arbitrator
C.Available to an Arbitrator
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
85.
Contents of a document under
Section 59 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 may be proved by
A.Oral evidence
B.Circumstantial evidence
C.Primary or secondary
evidence
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
86.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I |
List
II |
|
a. Refreshing the memories |
1. Section 159 |
|
b. Dying declaration |
2. Section 154 |
|
c. Leading question |
3. Section 32(1) |
|
d. Hostile witness |
4. Section 141 |
A.a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
B.a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
C.a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
D.a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
Answer: Option A
87.
Under section 45 of Evidence
Act Opinion of expert witness is-
A.A Conclusive proof
B.Is not relevant
C.Is not admissible
D.Is not a conclusive proof
Answer: Option D
88.
Estoppel operates in case of
a tenant
A.During the continuance of
tenancy
B.Who remain in possession
after the termination of tenancy by notice to quit
C.Both A and B
D.Only A and not B
Answer: Option C
89.
Latent ambiguity in a
document means ambiguity:
A.Not subject to
clarification by oral evidence
B.Apparent on the face of the
document
C.Of hidden character and for
the clarification of which oral evidence may be given
D.Not allowed to be proved by
oral evidence
Answer: Option C
90.
Order of production and
examination of witnesses is dealt under-
A.Section 135 of Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 136 of Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 137 of Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 138 of Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
Hearsay evidence is generally inadmissible. However, in which of the following
cases it is admissible?
A.Res gestae
B.Admissions and confessions
C.Dying declaration
D.All of these
Answer: Option D
92.
Under section 57 of the
Evidence Act, the court is not bound to take judicial notice of which of the
following facts;
A.The existence of every
state recognised by the Government of India
B.The title of every state
recognised by the Government of India
C.The national flag of every
state recognised by the Government of India
D.The national emblem of
every state recognised by the Government of India
Answer: Option D
93.
Which of the following
Section defines public documents?
A.Section 34
B.Section 35
C.Section 74
D.Section 78
Answer: Option C
94.
Electronic record in proper
custody gives rise to a presumption as to the digital signature, to be affixed
by the particular person under Section 90A of the Indian Evidence Act, if the
electronic record produced is
A.20 years old
B.15 years old
C.10 years old
D.5 years old
Answer: Option D
95.
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
applies to:
A.Proceedings under
Administrative Tribunals
B.Proceedings under the
Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952
C.Proceedings before
Industrial Tribunals
D.None of the above
Answer: Option D
96.
Indian Evidence Act applies
to:
A.Civil proceedings only
B.Criminal proceedings only
C.Both the civiland criminal
proceedings
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
97.
X' sues 'Y' for damage done
by a dog of 'Y', which 'Y' knew to be ferocious. The fact that the dog had
previously bitten 'A', 'B' and 'C' are
A.Relevant
B.Irrelevant
C.Inadmissible
D.Unreliable
Answer: Option A
98.
Which one of the following is
not a case on Estoppel?
A.Palvinder Kaur v. State of
Punjab
B.Pickard v. Seers
C.Sri Krishna v. Kurukshetra
University
D.Sarat Chand Dev v. Gopal
Chand Laha
Answer: Option A
99.
What option is available to a
Commissioner when a party seeks permission to cross-examine his own witness-
A.He can permit the party to
do so
B.He cannot permit the party
to do so
C.He may ask the party to
first obtain permission from Court under Section 154 of the Evidence Act
D.He can permit the party to
do so with the consent of the opposite party
Answer: Option C
100.
Under which section of
Evidence Act, confession before Police is not admissible
A.Section 25
B.Section 32
C.Section 20
D.Section 21
Answer: Option A
Communication in respect of the affairs of the state are privileged
communication on the grounds of public policy
A.Under
section 123 of Evidence Act
B.Under
section 124 of Evidence Act
C.Under
section 125 of Evidence Act
D.Under
section 126of Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
2.
Presumption
of dowry death which is mentioned under Section 113B of Indian Evidence Act,
1872 has been incorporated by the Amendment Act of
A.1983
B.1984
C.2000
D.1986
Answer: Option D
3.
Which
document is a Public Document?
A.Documents
forming records of acts of Sovereign Authority
B.Public
documents kept in any State of private documents
C.Documents
forming records of the acts of Official Bodies
D.All
of the above
Answer: Option D
4.
Which
of the following statement is not true?
A.In
criminal proceedings, the fact that the accused is of a good character, is
relevant
B.In
criminal proceedings, the fact that the accused has a bad character, is
relevant
C.A
previous conviction is relevant as evidence of bad character
D.In
civil cases, the fact that the character of any person is such as to affect the
amount of damages which he ought to receive, is relevant
Answer: Option B
5.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I (Section of lEA) |
List
II (Relevant Facts) |
|
a. Section-7 |
1. Motive of relevant facts |
|
b. Section-8 |
2. Facts inconsistent with
relevant fact |
|
c. Section-11 |
3. Cause of relevant facts |
|
d. Section-14 |
4. Fact showing existence
of any state of body |
A.a-1,
b-2, c-3, d-4
B.a-3,
b-1, c-2, d-4
C.a-3,
b-4, c-1, d-2
D.a-4,
b-3, c-2, d-1
Answer: Option B
6.
Which
of the following statements is not correct?
A.Facts
of which judicial notice has been taken need not be proved
B.Character
to prove conduct in civil cases is not relevant
C.Expert
opinion is binding on court
D.In
criminal cases, previous good character is relevant
Answer: Option C
7.
Which
of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with public
documents?
A.Section
74
B.Section
75
C.Section
76
D.Section
77
Answer: Option A
8.
The
correct position of Law of Evidence is
A.Admissions
are conclusive proof
B.Admissions
are not conclusive proof of matters admitted
C.Admissions
operate as estoppel in all circumstances
D.Admissions
are not conclusive proof of matters admitted, but they may operate as estoppel
under certain circumstances
Answer: Option D
9.
Opinions
of an expert expressed in a book commonly offered for sale cannot be proved by
the production of such book-
A.If
the author is dead
B.It
the author cannot be found
C.If
the author has become incapable of giving evidence
D.If
the author has gone abroad on vacation
Answer: Option D
10.
Any
thing, state of things or relation of things, capable of being perceived by the
senses, is
A.An
evidence
B.Fact
C.Facts
in issue
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option B
Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian Evidence Act
A.By the opinion of Experts
B.By the evidence of a person
who is acquainted with the handwriting
C.After police verification
D.A and B
Answer: Option D
12.
Section 92 of Evidence Act
applies to
A.Bilateral documents
B.Unilateral documents
C.Both A and B
D.Either A and B
Answer: Option A
13.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
the fact of Identification Parade is relevant in:
A.Section 6
B.Section 8
C.Section 9
D.Section 11
Answer: Option C
14.
Circumstantial evidence is-
A.Direct evidence
B.Indirect evidence
C.Neither of A and B
D.Material evidence
Answer: Option B
15.
Documents which are not
covered under section 74 of Evidence Act are called
A.Semi-public documents
B.Quasi-public documents
C.Private documents
D.All the above
Answer: Option C
16.
The professional communication
between an advocate and his client can be disclosed before the court:
A.With the consent of the
client
B.Without the consent of the
client if made in furtherance of any illegal purpose
C.Without the consent of the
client if the advocate comes to know that any crime or fraud has been committed
since the commencement of his employment
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
17.
Which one of the following
sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the relevancy of
statements as to any law contained in law books?
A.Section 37
B.Section 38
C.Section 36
D.Section 39
Answer: Option B
18.
Facts which form part of the
same transaction are relevant under which Section of Evidence Act?
A.Section 6
B.Section 7
C.Section 5
D.Section 9
Answer: Option A
19.
A person summoned to produce
a document in the Court
A.Does not become a witness
in the case unless he is called as a witness
B.Automatically becomes a
witness in the case
C.Automatically becomes a
hostile witness in the case
D.Can be cross examined
without being called as a witness
Answer: Option A
20.
The illustration that,
"A and B are jointly tried for the murder of C. It is proved that A said,
'B and I murdered C'," relates
A.Section 30 of the Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 24 of the Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 25 of the Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 27 of the Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
21.
In which of the following
cases is the character of a person relevant?
A.Civil cases only
B.Criminal cases only
C.Writ petitions
D.Civil and criminal cases
Answer: Option B
22.
"Best evidence
rule" is exclusively associated with the rule embodied in
A.Section 92 of the Evidence
Act
B.Section 90 of the Evidence
Act
C.Section 93 of the Evidence
Act
D.Section 91 of the Evidence
Act
Answer: Option D
23.
Under section 30 of Indian
Evidence Act, 1872, confession of one accused is admissible evidence against
co-accused if:
A.They are tried jointly for
the same offences
B.They are tried jointly for
different offences
C.They are tried separately
for the same offences
D.They are tried separately
for the cognate offences
E.None of these
Answer: Option A
24.
Transaction and instances
relating to a right or custom are relevant
A.Under section 6 of Evidence
Act
B.Under section 8 of Evidence
Act
C.Under section 10 of
Evidence Act
D.Under section 13 of
Evidence Act
Answer: Option D
25.
A' intentionally and falsely
led 'B' to believe that a plot of land belonged to him. On that basis, he
induced 'B' to buy and pay for it. Afterwards the plot of land became the
property of 'A'. 'A' brought a suit to set aside the sale in favour of 'B' on
the ground that, at the time of sale, he had no title. In such suit
A.A' may prove want of title
at the time of sale
B.A' cannot be allowed to
prove want of his title
C.It depends on the value of
the property
D.All these are incorrect
Answer: Option B
26.
Which one of the following
evidences may not be admissible in a Court of law?
A.By a spouse as regards
their communication
B.By a lawyer against his
client made for illegal purpose
C.By a dumb person
D.By an accomplice
Answer: Option A
27.
Which one of the following
sections of the Indian Evidence Act makes relevant opinions as to existence of
custom?
A.Section 47
B.Section 48
C.Section 49
D.Section 50
Answer: Option B
28.
Which is the correct
proposition of Law of Evidence?
A.A confessional statement
made when there is a threat or inducement is irrelevant even after removal of
such threat or inducement
B.A confessional statement
otherwise relevant is not relevant because it was made under a promise of
secrecy
C.A confessional statement
otherwise relevant is not relevant because it was made when he was drunk
D.In case of a joint trial of
several persons, when confessional statement made by one of them affecting
himself and others is proved, the Court has power to consider such confession
against such other persons as well as against the maker of such confession
Answer: Option D
29.
Under Section 54 of Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 previous bad character is irrelevant, but becomes relevant
if:
A.The bad character of a
person is itself a fact
B.The bad character of a
person is itself a fact-in-issue
C.The bad character is
evidence to a previous conviction
D.Both B and C
E.None of these
Answer: Option D
30.
Which of the following means
'a fact to be proved'?
A.Quid Probandum
B.Modus Probandi
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
In a case of threatening to a witness or any other person to give false
evidence, complaint may be filed by
A.Witness or any other person
B.Police
C.Court
D.Person authorized by Court
Answer: Option A
32.
The presumption under Section
114A, Indian Evidence Act, is a/an
A.Rebuttable presumption
B.Presumption of fact
C.Mixed presumption of law
and fact
D.Irrebuttable presumption of
law
Answer: Option A
33.
A power of attorney is
presumed to be correct:
A.If it is attested by the
Oath Commissioner
B.If it is executed before
and authenticated by a Notary Public
C.If it is attested by two
witnesses
D.If it is registered
Answer: Option B
34.
Promissory estoppel is the
extension of principle contained in which provision of the Evidence Act:
A.Section 65
B.Section 110
C.Section 115
D.Section 150
Answer: Option C
35.
Which section of the Indian
Evidence Act talks about Hostile Witness?
A.Section-152
B.Section-153
C.Section-154
D.Section-156
Answer: Option C
36.
Evidences are adduced by the
parties to the suit about the 'character'. As per the provisions of the Indian
Evidence Act, which of the following is/are correct?
1. Evidence of the character in civil proceedings is irrelevant and
inadmissible generally.
2. The character evidence is admissible if it affects the amount of damages
which he ought to receive.
3. The character evidence is admissible in so far as such character appears
from facts otherwise relevant.
Select the correct answer:
A.1 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Answer: Option B
37.
In which of the following
categories, an opinion contained in the book of a deceased expert which is
produced in evidence in a Court, is put:
A.Oral evidence
B.Documentary evidence
C.Evidence under Section 32
D.Evidence as hearsay
evidence
Answer: Option C
38.
Under proviso 2 to section 92
of Evidence Act oral evidence is admissible
A.Where the instrument
provides for the matter sought to be proved and the agreement sought to be
proved is consistent with the terms of the document
B.Where the instrument is
silent on the matter sought to be proved and the agreement to be proved is
consistent with the terms of the document
C.Where the instrument is
silent on the matter sought to be proved and the agreement to be proved is
inconsistent with the terms of the document
D.All the above
Answer: Option B
39.
Under which of the following
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, the judge determines as to admissibility
of fact?
A.Section 54
B.Section 148
C.Section 136
D.Section 23
Answer: Option C
40.
According to Section 138 of
the Indian Evidence Act, what shall be the order of examination?
A.Examination-in-chief,
Cross-Examination, and Re-Examination
B.Cross-Examination,
Re-Examination and Examination-in-chief
C.Examination-in-chief,
Re-Examination and Cross-Examination
D.No any prescribed order
Answer: Option A
Things said or done by a conspirator in reference to common design is relevant
fact under which Section of the Evidence Act?
A.Section 11
B.Section 13
C.Section 10
D.Section 12
Answer: Option C
42.
Which statement is true in
relation to a child witness?
A.A child of tender age can
be allowed to testify if he has intellectual capacity to understand questions
and give rational answers thereto
B.A child witness may be easy
prey of tutoring and when it is established that he is under the influence of
tutoring it is not safe to solely rely on his evidence
C.The law recognizes the
child as a competent witness but a child of a tender age of six years is not
considered by the Court to be a witness whose sole testimony can be relied
without other corroborative evidence
D.All above statements are
true
Answer: Option D
43.
A document containing a
communication from a husband to a wife or vice versa, in the hands of a third
person
A.Is not admissible in
evidence until consented to by the writer of the communication
B.Is not admissible in
evidence at all
C.Is admissible in evidence
D.Either A or B
Answer: Option C
44.
In which of the following
instances does evidence means "a fact which serves as the foundation for
an inference"?
A.Direct evidence
B.Circumstantial evidence
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
45.
If question asked to witness
to any matter relevant to the matter in issue and the answer given by witness
to such question will criminate him, then
A.The witness shall be
compelled to answer such question
B.The witness shall not be
compelled to answer such question
C.Court may presume
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
46.
On whom the burden of proof
lies in a criminal case?
A.Prosecution
B.On the discretion of the
court
C.Accused
D.Both Prosecution and
Accused
Answer: Option A
47.
A magistrate can be compelled
to answer questions on his own conduct as a Magistrate in Court:
A.By another Magistrate
B.By a police officer
C.By a revenue officer
D.By an order of a court to
which he is subordinate
Answer: Option D
48.
What is the number of
witnesses required for the proof of any fact in any case?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.No particular number
Answer: Option D
49.
Confession of co-accused is
considered as:
A.Strong type of evidence
B.Weak type of evidence
C.No evidence
D.Sufficient evidence
Answer: Option B
50.
Which of the following is not
a court as per definition?
A.Magistrate
B.Judge
C.Arbitrator
D.Income Tax appellate
authority
Answer: Option C
Dying Declaration can be made through signs and gestures was stated in which
case?
A.Muniappan v. State of
Madras
B.Kanwal v. State of Punjab
C.Queen v. Abdulla
D.Avtar Kumar v. State of
Orissa
Answer: Option C
52.
Confession of an accused is
admissible against co-accused
A.If they are tried jointly
for the same offences
B.If they are tried jointly
for different offences
C.If they are tried for
different offences and not jointly
D.If they are tried for the
same offences but not jointly
Answer: Option A
53.
In which case section 27 of
the Indian Evidence Act was held to be valid under Article 14 of Constitution
of India?
A.Ashok Kumar v. State of
Uttar Pradesh
B.Nathu v. State of Uttar
Pradesh
C.State of Uttar Pradesh v.
Deoman Upadhyaya
D.Moh. Inayathulla v. State
of Maharashtra
Answer: Option C
54.
The burden of proof regarding
continuance of life for thirty years is contained in
A.Section 106 of the Evidence
Act
B.Section 107 of the Evidence
Act
C.Section 108 of the Evidence
Act
D.Section 109 of the Evidence
Act
Answer: Option B
55.
A, an illiterate person,
executes some document in favour of B. The burden of proof lies on:
A.A, an illiterate person
B.B, in whose favour document
has been executed
C.Both A and B
D.Inference should be drawn
from document executed
Answer: Option B
56.
Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
(A) 'A' agrees absolutely in writing to pay 'B' Rs. 1000 on the 1st March,
2010. The fact that at the same time an oral agreement was made that the money
should not be paid till the thirty-first March, cannot be proved.
(B) 'A' Sells 'B' a horse and verbally warrants him sound. 'A' gives 'B' a
paper in these words "Bought of 'A', a horse for Rs. 500". 'B' may
prove the verbal warranty.
A.(A) incorrect, (B) correct
B.(B) incorrect, (A) correct
C.Both correct
D.Both incorrect
Answer: Option C
57.
If X is charged with Y's
murder, which of the following will be a hearsay evidence:
A.Z, in his evidence, states
that "I saw X stabbing Y with a knife".
B.Evidence of A that "Z told
me that he had seen X stabbing Y"
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
58.
The presumption of legitimacy
under Section 112 is
A.Presumption of law
B.Presumption of fact
C.Mixed presumption of law
and fact
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
59.
Grave and sudden provocation
is
A.Question of fact
B.Question of law
C.Mixed question of law and
fact
D.Presumption under law
Answer: Option A
60.
Which of the following
documents cannot be admitted in evidence in a criminal trial without formal
proof?
A.Certified copies of public
documents
B.Report issues by a govt.
scientist after chemical/serological examination of samples forwarded to him by
the investigating agency
C.A report issued by a govt.
handwriting expert after comparison of the disputed signatures with an admitted
signature
D.A document which is
admitted by the opposite party
Answer: Option A
A confession made by an accused is relevant and admissible:
A.When it is extra judicial,
voluntary and truthful and beyond reproach
B.When made to a third person
after being detained by a police officer
C.When made on being
threatened with severe assault and beatings by public
D.None of the above as
confession is inadmissible
Answer: Option A
62.
In Evidence Act the facts of
which judicial notice is to be taken are stated in
A.Section 55
B.Section 56
C.Section 57
D.Section 58
Answer: Option C
63.
Which one of the following
Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is expressly excluded by the proviso to
Section 50 of the Indian Evidence Act. 1872?
A.Section 354
B.Section 354A
C.Section 498A
D.Section 497
Answer: Option D
64.
Which of the following does
not figure in section 115 while dealing with applying the principle of
Estoppel;
A.Conduct
B.Act
C.Omission
D.Declaration
Answer: Option A
65.
Evidence of custom cannot be
given to establish:
A.A civil right
B.An easementary right
C.A customary right
D.A criminal right
Answer: Option D
66.
Choose the correct assertion
based on the following propositions:
Propositions:
1. Statement is a genus; admission is a species while confession is a
subspecies
2. Statement and admission are species while confession is a sub-species.
3. Statement and admission are genus while confession is a species.
Assertions:
A.1 is correct, 2 and 3 are
incorrect
B.1 and 2 are correct and 3
is incorrect
C.1 and 3 are correct and 1
is incorrect
D.3 is correct and 1 and 2
are incorrect
Answer: Option A
67.
The question is as to the
date of Y's birth. An entry in the diary of a deceased surgeon regularly kept
in the course of business, stating that, on a given day he attended Y's mother
and delivered her of a son, is a relevant fact under which of the following
Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.Section 32
B.Section 33
C.Section 34
D.Section 73
E.None of the above
Answer: Option A
68.
Communication by a client to
an Advocate is not permitted to be disclosed under Section . . . . . . . . of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
A.126
B.127
C.128
D.129
Answer: Option A
69.
A gives B a receipt for money
paid by B. Oral evidence is offered to prove the non-payment-
A.The evidence is admissible
B.The evidence is not
admissible
C.Section 90 of the Indian
Evidence Act deals with this aspect
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
70.
Section 114, illustration (g)
of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 refers to the presumption as to:
A.Common course of business
B.Arising from withholding
evidence
C.Regarding bill of exchange
D.Continuity of things
Answer: Option B
71.
Section 15, Indian Evidence
Act deals with:
A.Facts bearing on the
question whether a particular act was acciden tal or intentional
B.Facts whether a particular
act was done with a particular knowledge or intention
C.Both A and B
D.None of them
Answer: Option C
72.
In which of the following
instances there is no reason ground for asking the witness the question whether
he is a dakoit?
A.A barrister is instructed
by an attorney that an important witness is a dakoit
B.A pleader is informed by a
person in court that an important witness is a dakoit. The informant on being
questioned by the pleader gives satisfactory reasons for his statement
C.A witness of whom nothing
whatsoever is known, is asked randomly, whether he is a dacoit
D.A witness of whom nothing
whatsoever is known, being questioned as to his mode of life and means of
living, gives unsatisfactory answers
Answer: Option C
73.
The professional privilege
under section 126 of Evidence Act is available in respect of communication made
A.For the purposes of
professional employment
B.In the cause of employment
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option C
74.
Which one of the following
statements is correct?
Facts fonning part of the same transaction are facts
A.Which occurred at the same
time and place
B.Which occurred at a
different time and place
C.Which are connected with
other facts on the basis of time, place, object, parties, acts or omissions
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
75.
What is correct as regards
the admissibility of self-regarding statements
A.Self-harming statement is
admissible but a self-serving statement is not generally admissible
B.Self-serving statement is
admissible but a self-harming statement is not generally admissible
C.Self-serving and
self-harming statements both are generally admissible
D.Self-serving and
self-harming statements both are generally inadmissible
Answer: Option A
76.
Confession can be result of
self-talk, communication of confession to another person is not necessary, was
held in the case of
A.Sankaria v. State of
Rajasthan
B.Butta Singh v. State of
Punjab
C.Sahoo v. State of Uttar
Pradesh
D.Nishikant Jha v. State of
Bihar
Answer: Option C
77.
No revenue officer shall be
compelled to say whence he got any information as to the commission of any
offence against the public revenue. This provision is contained in
A.Section 125, Evidence Act
B.Section 124, Evidence Act
C.Section 123, Evidence Act
D.Section 126, Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
78.
Under which Provision of
Indian Evidence Act court shall presume regarding dowry death:
A.Under section 113(A)
B.Under section 114(B)
C.Under section 113(B)
D.Under section 114(B)
Answer: Option C
79.
In a case of murder by A of B
which facts are relevant
A.That A left immediately the
place of crime before police reached
B.That A told his friends
about taking revenge for his father's death
C.That A was seen fleeing
with a knife immediately after murder of B
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
80.
Whichof the following section
of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 prescribes conditions for making oral admissions
as to the contents of documents as relevant?
A.21
B.22
C.23
D.24
E.None of the above
Answer: Option B
The five golden principles which constitute the 'Panchsheel' of the proof of a
case based on circumstantial evidence are laid down in:
A.Haricharan Kurmi v. State
of Bihar (AIR 1964 SC 1184)
B.Sharad v. State of
Maharashtra (AIR 1984 SC 1622)
C.Ram Singh v. Col. Ram Singh
(AIR 1986 SC 3)
D.Kashmir Singh v. State of
Madhya Pradesh (AIR 1952 SC 159)
E.None of the above
Answer: Option B
82.
The evidence unearthed by the
sniffer dog falls under
A.Oral evidence
B.Documentary evidence
C.Hearsay evidence
D.Scientific evidence
Answer: Option D
83.
A wrote a letter to his
lawyer X that he is going to commit theft and in case he is apprehended, he
should be protected. Can X be witness against A in case of charge of theft?
A.Yes, as it is a
communication before the doing of an act
B.No, lawyer and client are
barred under privileged communication
C.Yes, it is not a privileged
communication except an information to a third party
D.No, lawyer as per
professional ethics should not stand against A
Answer: Option C
84.
Res Gestae is allowed as an
exception to:
A.Confession
B.Dying declaration
C.Hearsay evidence
D.Documentary evidence
Answer: Option C
85.
In which of the following
judgements delivered by the Supreme Court in 2015, it was held that "it is
imperative if the examination-in-chief is over, the cross-examination should be
completed the same day."?
A.Vinod Kumar v. State of
Punjab
B.Ahmad Shah v. State of
Rajasthan
C.Jasmer Singh v. State of
Haryana
D.Inder Singh v. State of
Rajasthan
Answer: Option A
86.
Section 26 of Indian Evidence
Act provides
A.No confession made by a
person in police custody is admissible
B.Confession made by a person
in police custody is admissible
C.Confession made in the
immediate presence of a magistrate is admissible
D.A and C
Answer: Option D
87.
When the court has to a
scertain the relationship between one persor and another, the opinion of any
person having special means of knowledge and expressed by conduct is admissible
A.Under section 51 of
Evidence Act
B.Under section 50 of
Evidence Act
C.Under section 52 of
Evidence Act
D.Under section 49 of
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
88.
As per section 1 of Indian
Evidence Act, the Act came into force on
A.15th March 1872
B.1st September 1872
C.15th September 1872
D.1st October 1872
Answer: Option B
89.
Nothing in section 23 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 shall be taken to exempt any barrister, pleader
attorney or vakil from giving evidence of any matter of which he may be
compelled to give evidence is provided by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, under:
A.Section 127
B.Section 128
C.Section 129
D.Section 126
Answer: Option D
90.
Which one of the following
statements is incorrect regarding dumb witnesses?
A.Dumb witness may give
evidence in any manner which can make it intelligible
B.Dumb witness may give his
evidence by writing in open court
C.Dumb witness may give his
evidence by signs in open court
D.Evidence given by a dumb
witness in writing before the court shall be deemed to be documentary evidence
Answer: Option D
.
A person is seen with same
bank notes immediately after a theft in bank. The presumption is
A.He has stolen the money
B.He has received the stolen
money with required knowledge
C.Either A or B
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
92.
Facts which are necessary to
explain or introduce relevant facts of place, name, date, relationship and
identity of parties are relevant
A.Under section 8 of Evidence
Act
B.Under section 9 of Evidence
Act
C.Under section 10 of
Evidence Act
D.Under section 11 of
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
93.
The court may in its
discretion call for proving the facts
A.Of which judicial notice
has to be taken
B.Which have been admitted
otherwise than such admissions
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option B
94.
A witness who is unable to
speak may give his evidence in any other manner in which he can make it
intelligible, as by writing or by signs; but such writing must be written and
the signs made in open Court, the evidence so given shall be deemed to be oral
evidence is known as
A.Dumb witness
B.An informer
C.Female witness
D.Hostile witness
Answer: Option A
95.
Assertion (A): A gives B a receipt for
money paid by B. Oral evidence is offered for the payment. The evidence is
admissible.
Reason
(R): A receipt is not a contract or grant in respect of
which oral evidence is barred.
A.Both A and R are true and R
is the correct explanation of A
B.Both A and R are true but R
is not the correct explanation of A
C.A is true but R is false
D.A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A
96.
Admission means
A.Statement made before Court
B.Statement made in a
document
C.Statement suggesting
inference as to any fact in issue
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
97.
The case, 'Queen Empress v.
Abdullah' is related with
A.Burden of proof
B.Privileged communication
C.Confession
D.Dying declaration
Answer: Option D
98.
A' tried for the murder of
'B' by beating with a club with the intention of causing his death.
At 'A's' trial which one of the following is not fact in issue?
A.'A's' beating 'B' with the
club
B.A's' conversation with 'C'
C.A's' causing 'B's' death
with the club
D.'A's' intention to cause
'B's' death
Answer: Option B
99.
A sells B a horse and
verbally warrants him sound. A gives B a paper in these words "Bought of A
a horse for Rs. 500" Whether B can prove the verbal warranty:
A.Yes
B.Barred under section 92 of
Evidence Act
C.No
D.Under section 91 Indian
Evidence Act only written documents can be proved
Answer: Option A
100.
A confession made by a person
while in police custody is inadmissible under:
A.Section 29 of Evidence Act
B.Section 26 of Evidence Act
C.Section 25 of Evidence Act
D.Section 27 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
Section 2 of the Indian Evidence Act was replead by
A.Repealing
Act, 1948
B.Repealing
Act, 1945
C.Repealing
Act, 1938
D.Repealing
Act, 1883
Answer: Option C
2.
Facts
forming part of the same Transaction are known as
A.Plea
of Alibi
B.Dying
Declaration
C.Admission
D.Res
Gestae
Answer: Option D
3.
Presumption
of law provided under Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act as to paternity of
child
A.Is
applicable also to Muslims and supersedes the rules of Muslim Law
B.Is
not applicable to Muslims and does not supersede the rule of Muslim: Law
C.May
be applicable or may not be applicable as per the discretion of the court
D.May
be applicable if the parties consent
Answer: Option A
4.
Tape-recorded
conversation is admissible in evidence if
A.Conversation
is very important
B.Conversation
can save the culprit
C.Conversation
is relevant to the matters in issue but the voice is unidentified
D.Conversation
is relevant to the matters in issue and the voice is identified
Answer: Option D
5.
Which
of the following statements is not relevant in a case where 'A' is tried for
murder:
A.That
'A' quarrelled with dead person three days before the incident
B.That
'A' has purchased a knife one hour before the incident
C.That
'A' is a man of good character
D.That
'A' is a man of bad character
Answer: Option D
6.
A
fact under section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act means and includes
A.Anything
capable of being perceived by the senses
B.State
of things capable of being perceived by the senses
C.Relation
to things capable of being perceived by the senses
D.All
these
Answer: Option D
7.
Mark
the correct statement-
A.The
doctrine of estoppel is applied only in civil matters
B.The
doctrine of estoppel is applied only in criminal matters
C.The
doctrine of estoppel is applied in civil and criminal matters
D.All
the above statements are wrong
Answer: Option A
8.
Indian
Evidence Act was enacted in
A.1972
B.1872
C.1955
D.1986
Answer: Option B
9.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I |
List
II |
|
a. Section 60 |
1. Leading Question |
|
b. Section 141 |
2. Hostile Witness |
|
c. Section 154 |
3. Refresh Memory |
A.a-4,
b-1, c-2, d-3
B.a-1,
b-2, c-3, d-4
C.a-1,
b-2, c-4, d-3
D.a-1,
b-3, c-4, d-2
Answer: Option A
10.
The
right of the villagers of a particular village to use the water of a particular
well is a general custom or right within the meaning of one of the following
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act
A.48
B.47
A
C.114
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option A
A dying declaration under Section 32 of the Evidence Act is admissible in
evidence-
A.Only when it is reduced in writing
B.Even when it is made to a
police officer
C.Only when it is made to a
Magistrate
D.Only when it is made in
immediate presence of a Doctor
Answer: Option B
12.
Section 24 of Evidence Act
applies
A.When the inducement, threat
or promise comes from a person in authority
B.When the inducement is of a
temporal kind
C.When the inducement is
spiritual or religious
D.Only A and B are correct
Answer: Option D
13.
The questions is whether A
was ravished? As conduct the fact that without making a complaint she said that
she was ravished is:
A.Not relevant
B.Relevant
C.Partly relevant
D.Neither relevant nor
irrelevant
Answer: Option A
14.
What is the maximum number of
witness which can be produced in a case:
A.5
B.10
C.15
D.No limit
Answer: Option D
15.
Which of the following is not
prima facie evidence of age, where juvenility is pleaded?
A.Birth certificate given by
the Municipality
B.Birth certificate given by
the School
C.Birth certificate given by
the Hospital
D.Matriculation certificate
Answer: Option C
16.
What is the definition of
'not proved' in the Indian Evidence Act?
A.A fact is said not to be
proved when it is not proved
B.A fact is said not to be
proved when it is not disproved
C.A fact is said not to be
proved when it is neither proved nor disproved
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
17.
Under sub-section 5(C) of
Section 65(B) in Indian Evidence Act, a computer output shall be taken to have
been produced by a computer:
A.Whether it was produced by
it directly
B.Whether it was produced by
means of any appropriate equipment
C.Whether it was produced by
it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate
equipment
D.Whether it was produced by
it directly or by means of any appropriate equipment
Answer: Option C
18.
Which of the following need
not be established for making the evidence admissible under section 10 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
A.There must be reason to
believe that there was a conspiracy
B.There must be reason to
believe that the accused persons were members of the conspiracy
C.The evidence must be
related to things said, done or written
D.The offence must have been
committed
Answer: Option D
19.
The procedure for getting
certified copy of a public document is set forth in:
A.Section 75, Evidence Act
B.Section 76, Evidence Act
C.Section 77, Evidence Act
D.Section 78, Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
20.
Which one of the following is
not a document under the Indian Evidence Act?
A.An inscription on a stone
of a building
B.A photograph
C.A printout of a message
sent through mobile or computer
D.A knife recovered by police
from the possession of an accused and produced in the court
Answer: Option D
Section 88A of Evidence Act provides for
A.Presumption as to the
electronic message forwarded corresponds with the message as fed in the
computer
B.Presumption as to the
person by whom the message is sent
C.Both A and B
D.Only B but not A
Answer: Option A
22.
In which of the following
cases no notice is required to be given to the adverse party before producing
the secondary documentary evidence?
A.When original is destroyed
B.When original is immovable
C.When original is electronic
record
D.When original is in the
possession of adverse party
Answer: Option D
23.
Which confession needs a
closer scrutiny
A.Confession made to officers
under Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act
B.Confession made to private
citizens
C.Confession made to
officials who do not have investigation powers under Narcotic Drugs and
Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act
D.When confessional statement
found voluntary and free from pressure
Answer: Option A
24.
Which section of the Indian
Evidence Act defines "Leading Question"
A.Section 140
B.Section 141
C.Section 142
D.Section 143
Answer: Option B
25.
The object of
cross-examination is-
A.To examine the intelligence
of the witness
B.To examine the impartiality
of the witness
C.To examine the credibility
of the witness
D.To examine the good
character of the witness
Answer: Option C
26.
The case of Pakala Narayan
Swami v. King Emperor relates to-
A.Doctrine of estoppel
B.Accomplice
C.Dying declaration
D.Cross examination
Answer: Option C
27.
Whether a weapon is a deadly
weapon is a question of:
A.Law
B.Fact
C.Opinion of the expert
witness
D.Opinion of the judge
Answer: Option B
28.
There is a charge upon 'A'
committing murder at Calcutta on a certain day. He takes plea that on that day
he was at Lahore. This statement of 'A' is relevant under which section of the
Evidence Act?
A.Section 8
B.Section 9
C.Section 11
D.Section 14
Answer: Option C
29.
Presumption as to dowry death
of a woman is provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under . . . . . . . .
A.Section 113A
B.Section 113B
C.Section 113
D.Section 114A
Answer: Option B
30.
A public officer
A.Cannot be compelled to
disclose communications made to him in official confidence if he does not
consider that the public interests would suffer by the disclosure
B.Cannot be compelled to
disclose communications made to him officially if he considers that the public
interests would suffer by the disclosure
C.Can be compelled to
disclose communications made to him officially if he does not consider that the
public interests would suffer by the disclosure
D.Can be compelled to
disclose communications made to him officially if he considers that the public
interests would suffer by the disclosure
Answer: Option B
Mark the incorrect statement:
A.The terms 'relevancy' and
'admissibility' are co-extensive and inter-changeable
B.That evidence must be
relevant in order to be admissible
C.That facts which are
relevant may not be admissible
D.That 'relevancy' is the
genus of which 'admissibility' is a species
Answer: Option A
32.
Where a bill of exchange is
drawn in a set of five, how many of them need to be proved?
A.Five
B.Three
C.One
D.Two
Answer: Option C
33.
Which one of the following is
not a case on 'Dying Declaration'?
A.Rattan Gaud v. State of
Bihar
B.Paniben v. State of Gujarat
C.Sita Ram v. State of Uttar
Pradesh
D.Kaushal Rao v. State of
Maharashtra
Answer: Option C
34.
Opinion of an expert
expressed in a book commonly offered for sale can be proved by the production
of such book if the author
A.Is dead
B.Lives outside the
jurisdiction of the trial court
C.Is capable of giving
evidence but fails to appear before the court
D.Is not willing to give
evidence
Answer: Option A
35.
Which one of the following is
not a public document?
A.An unregistered family
settlement
B.A registered sale deed
C.Judgment of High Court
D.Judgment of Civil Judge
Answer: Option A
36.
Which Section of the Indian
Evidence Act is based on the maxim "Salus populi est suprema lex"?
A.Section 123
B.Section 118
C.Section 119
D.Section 130
Answer: Option A
37.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I |
List
II |
|
a. Section 46 of as to
Indian Evidence Act |
1. Opinion digital
signature |
|
b. Section 47 of Indian
Evidence Act |
2. Opinion existence of
right or custom when relevant |
|
c. Section 47A of Indian Evidence
Act |
3. Facts bearing upon
opinion of experts |
|
d. Section 48 of as Indian
Evidence Act |
4. Opinion as to
handwriting when relevant |
A.a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
B.a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
C.a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
D.a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Answer: Option D
38.
Under Section 113A of the,
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in which one of the following circumstances the Court
may not presume abetment of suicide by a married woman by her husband or
relative?
A.When the married woman died
within seven years of marriage under mysterious circumstances
B.When the married woman
committed suicide within seven years of her marriage
C.When the married woman
committed suicide after ten years of her marriage
D.When the married woman
committed suicide by jumping into a well
Answer: Option C
39.
Examination-in-chief' means
A.The examination of a
witness by adverse party
B.The examination of a
witness by the party who calls him
C.The examination of a
witness, subsequent to the cross-examination by the party who called him
D.The examination of a first
witness
Answer: Option B
40.
The protection under section
126 of Evidence Act extends to
A.Communication made in
furtherance of any illegal design
B.Any fact observed showing
the communication of any offence or fraud committed since commence-ment of
employment
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option D
The provision relating to presumption as to telegraphic message is embodied in
the Evidence Act vide Section:
A.83
B.85
C.87
D.88
Answer: Option D
42.
Omnia presumuntur rite esse
acta means:
A.All acts are presumed to be
rightly done
B.All acts are presumed to be
not rightly done
C.All acts are presumed to be
wrongly done
D.All acts are presumed to be
not wrongly done
Answer: Option A
43.
Cross-examination of one's
own witness is:
A.Permissible
B.Permissible only after
obtaining the permission of the court
C.Not permissible
D.Permissible with the
consent of the opposite party
Answer: Option B
44.
Under which Section of
Evidence Act the provision as to who could be a witness may found?
A.Section 116
B.Section 118
C.Section 119
D.Section 120
Answer: Option B
45.
A' is tried for a crime The
fact that he said something indicating a general disposition to commit crimes
of that class is
A.Relevant
B.Irrelevant
C.Proves his character
D.Corroborates his
involvement in the crime
Answer: Option B
46.
What is the evidentiary value
of evidence given by husband against wife and vice versa under the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872?
A.Both cannot adduce evidence
B.Both are considered one
identity in law, therefore one cannot adduce evidence against the other
C.Evidence can be adduced
only in criminal proceedings by both
D.Evidence can be adduced by
both in civil and criminal proceedings
Answer: Option D
47.
Which of the following
section(s) of the Indian Evidence Act deal with latent ambiguity?
A.Section 94
B.Section 95
C.Section 96
D.Both B and C
Answer: Option D
48.
Which of the following facts,
the Court may presume to exist?
A.When a woman states in here
evidence before the Court that she did not consent for sex
B.A child will never lie
C.A priest will always speak
truth
D.All these
Answer: Option A
49.
If an accused voluntarily
consents for brain mapping and narco-analysis, then such information is
relevant under which Section of Evidence Act?
A.Section 7
B.Section 17
C.Section 27
D.Section 30
Answer: Option C
50.
Under Section 17 of the
Indian Evidence Act, the 'admission' is
A.Written only
B.Oral only
C.Both written or oral
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
Under Section 1 of the Indian Evidence Act, the proceedings which are
specifically excluded from the operation of the Indian Evidence Act:
A.Proceedings before
Industrial Tribunals
B.Proceedings before
Arbitrators
C.Proceedings before
Administrative Tribunals
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
52.
Which of the following is not
correctly matched?
A.Matrimonial communication ⇔ Section 122
B.Official communication ⇔ Section 124
C.Professional communication ⇔ Section 126
D.Confidential communication
with legal advisers ⇔ Section 127
Answer: Option D
53.
The previous conviction of a
person is relevant under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under
A.Section 14 Explanation I
B.Section 14 Explanation II
C.Section 8 Explanation I
D.Section 8 Explanation II
Answer: Option B
54.
Admissibility of evidence is
to be decided by
A.The parties to a trial
B.The Judge
C.The public prosecutor
D.The advocates of the
parties
Answer: Option B
55.
In the trial of murder of 'B'
by 'A', which fact is not relevant in the following?
A.A' was absconding immediately
after the murder of 'B'
B.A' and 'B' were seen
together before murder
C.A' borrowed rupees ten
thousand from 'B'
D.On that day 'A' was in
Bangalore while the murder happened in Indore
Answer: Option C
56.
Which one of the following is
the true statement in relation to the relevancy of character?
A.In criminal cases, previous
good character is irrelevant
B.In criminal proceedings,
previous bad character is relevant
C.In civil cases, character
to prove conduct imputed is relevant
D.In civil cases, character
of any person affecting the amount of damages is relevant
Answer: Option D
57.
A' is accused of waging war
against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in
which property is destroyed at 'X', troops are attacked at 'y' and goals are
broken open in 'Z'. 'A' was present at 'X' and 'Y' but not at 'Z'.
A.Occurrence at X and Y are
relevant
B.Occurrence at X, Y and Z
are relevant
C.Occurrence at X, Y and Z
are not relevant
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
58.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I (Section) |
List
II (Provision) |
|
a. Section 159 |
1. Leading question |
|
b. Section 154 |
2. Oral evidence |
|
c. Section 60 |
3. Refreshing memory |
|
d. Section 141 |
4. Hostile witness |
A.a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
B.a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
C.a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
D.a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
Answer: Option B
59.
In which one of the following
cases, constitutional validity of Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act was
challenged on the basis of being violative of Article 20(3) of the Indian
Constitution?
A.State of Uttar Pradesh v.
Deoman Upadhyay
B.State of Bombay v.
Kathikalu
C.Inayatullah v. State of
Maharashtra
D.Nandini Satpathi v. P. L.
Dani
Answer: Option B
60.
"Facts not otherwise
relevant are relevant if they are inconsistent with any fact in issue or
relevant fact".
Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act contains the
aforesaid principle of law?
A.Section 9
B.Section 10
C.Section 11
D.Section 12
Answer: Option C
Which one of the following cases refers to 'Conspiracy' under Section 27 of
Indian Evidence Act?
A.Pulukuri Kottaya v.
Emperor, AIR 1947 PC 67
B.Biswanath Prasad v. Dwarka
Prasad, AIR 1974 SC 117
C.Jayantibhai Bhenkarbhai v.
State of Gujarat, AIR 2002 SC 165
D.Mohd Khalid v. State of
West Bengal, AIR 2002 SC 334
Answer: Option A
62.
What kind of agreement can be
presumed by the Court under Section 85-A of Indian Evidence Act?
A.Written agreement
B.Oral agreement
C.Electronic agreement
D.All agreement
Answer: Option C
63.
Under Indian Evidence Act the
dying declaration is not admissible if
A.It relates to cause of
action
B.It relates to any
transaction of death
C.The person making the
statement was not competent in the opinion of the court
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
64.
In which section of Indian
Evidence Act, those conditions are mentioned when facts not otherwise relevant,
are relevant
A.Section 11
B.Section 12
C.Section 13
D.Section 14
Answer: Option A
65.
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
is not applied to
A.Affidavits presented to the
Court
B.Proceedings before an
arbitration
C.Both A and B
D.Judicial proceedings before
the Court
Answer: Option C
66.
Which of the following
Section was not inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 by the Information
Technology Act, 2002?
A.Section-81A
B.Section-114A
C.Section-73A
D.Section-47A
Answer: Option B
67.
The presumption under Section
112 of the Indian Evidence Act is relevant when there is dispute relating to
the:
A.Maternity of the child
B.Paternity of the child
C.Both A and B
D.Guardianship of the child
Answer: Option B
68.
Generally In which of the
following cases the confession of the person will be valid?
A.If it is made to the police
officer
B.If it is made in the
presence of a police officer
C.If it is made in the
presence of two independent witnesses while in the custody of the Police Office
D.If it is made in the
presence of a Magistrate when the accused is in the custody of the Police
Officer
Answer: Option D
69.
For taking the dying
declaration from the deceased, the presence of Magistrate is
A.Mandatory
B.Not mandatory
C.Required at the request of
the police
D.Required at the request of
the relative of the deceased
Answer: Option B
70.
Which one of the following
statements with regard to dying declaration is not correct?
A.A dying declaration can be
the sole basis of conviction if it inspires the full confidence of the Court
B.Where the Court is
satisfied that the declaration is true and voluntary, it can base its conviction
without any further corroboration
C.A dying declaration given
to a close relative shall be the sole evidence for conviction of the accused
D.Where dying declaration is
suspicious, it should not be acted upon without corroborative evidence
Answer: Option C
Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regard to a Test
Identification Parade?
A.It constitutes substantive
evidence
B.Accused should not
previously be known to the witness
C.It helps the investigating
agency to know that the investigation is proceeding on the right lines
D.It should be conducted as
soon as after the arrest of the accused
Answer: Option A
72.
Re-examination of a witness
can be done
A.After examination in chief
but before cross-examination
B.After examination chief and
after cross-examination
C.Either A or B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option B
73.
Indian Evidence Act: A
witness may while under examination, refresh his memory by referring to any
writing made by himself at the time of the transaction or soon afterwards. This
provision is provided under
A.Section 160
B.Section 158
C.Section 166
D.Section 159
Answer: Option D
74.
Things said or done by a
conspirator in reference to the common design is relevant
A.Under section 12 of
Evidence Act
B.Under section 6 of Evidence
Act
C.Under section 10 of
Evidence Act
D.Under section 8 of Evidence
Act
Answer: Option C
75.
Judge has power to put
question or order production of document. What is not true?
A.Parties shall not be
entitled to make objection to any such question or order
B.Parties shall be entitled
to cross-examine the witness upon answer given in reply of such question as a
right
C.Without the leave of Court
party shall not be entitled to cross-examine
D.Judge shall not be entitled
to compel any witness to answer or produce document which is refusable under
Section 121 to 131 Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
76.
Alibi is governed by
A.Section 9 of Evidence Act
B.Section 12 of Evidence Act
C.Section 10 of Evidence Act
D.Section 11 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option D
77.
Mr. X managed to get
admission in MBBS course under a false caste certificate. University took three
long years in verifying it and ultimately cancelled admission of Mr. X. Can
estoppel work against the university?
A.Yes, as it took 3 years to
cancel admission
B.No, as the student has
committed fraud himself
C.No, as it is against the
Statutes
D.Yes, as equity favours Mr.
X
Answer: Option B
78.
In which section of Indian
Evidence Act special provision is mentioned regarding evidence relating the
electronic record:
A.Under Section 59
B.Under Section 63
C.Under Section 65(A)
D.Under Section 67(A)
Answer: Option C
79.
Which one of the following
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act says "facts admitted need not be
proved"?
A.Section 18
B.Section 21
C.Section 55
D.Section 58
Answer: Option D
80.
A dying declaration is
relevant evidence under section 32 of the Evidence Act notwithstanding it being
hearsay evidence, because-
A.A statement by a person as
to the cause of his death is grated in law as a solemn statement
B.If a person is dead and
anything said by the person as to the cause of death is relevant, since the
dead person cannot be brought beforethe court to testify, necessity makes it
inevitable to admit said statement
C.Because it is believed that
a person would not meet his maker with lies in the mouth
D.Because society owes a duty
to dead persons to give them justice
Answer: Option C
In some cases, it has been pleaded on behalf of the Government that the law of
estoppel is not applicable in view of
A.Doctrine of laches
B.Doctrine of lex rei sitae
C.Doctrine of executive
necessity
D.Doctrine of Lex Regia
Answer: Option C
82.
Which statement is incorrect?
A.In cross examination a
witness may be asked questions which tend to discover what is his position in
life
B.In cross examination a
witness may be asked questions which tend to test his veracity
C.Witnesses to character
shall not be re-examined
D.In cross examination a
witness may be asked questions which tend to discover who he is
Answer: Option C
83.
Fact in issue' is defined
under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that includes 'any fact from which, either
by itself or in connection with other facts, the existence, non existence,
nature, or extent of any right, liability or disability, asserted or denied in
any suit or proceeding, necessarily follows'. In a case where 'A' is accused of
murder, which one of the following fact is not a fact in issue?
A.That 'A' caused the murder
B.That 'A' intentionally
caused the murder
C.That 'A' was too poor
D.That 'A' was incapable of
knowing the nature of his act due to unsoundness of mind
Answer: Option C
84.
Confession of an accused is
irrelevant and inadmissible when made:
A.While in police custody but
in the immediate presence of a Magistrate
B.In consequence of a
deception practised on the accused for the purpose of obtaining it
C.When he was drunk
D.Before a Magistrate, who
told him that if he made a full confession, he would be released
Answer: Option D
85.
A person shall be deemed to
be dead if he remained unheard for
A.5 years
B.7 years
C.10 years
D.12 years
Answer: Option B
86.
The principle stated in
Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act is an application of the principle of
A.Res gestae
B.Res ipsa loquitur
C.Res-judicata
D.Rebus sic stantibus
Answer: Option B
87.
Mallella Shyamsundar v. State
of Andhra Pradesh is related to
A.Relevancy of fact
B.Dying declaration
C.Hearsay evidence
D.Oral evidence
Answer: Option B
88.
Law of evidence is
A.A substantive law
B.An adjective law
C.Both A or B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option B
89.
The want or failure of
consideration as contemplated under proviso 1 to section 92 of Evidence Act
invalidating a document
A.Is a complete want or
failure
B.Is a partial want or
failure
C.Is a substantial want or
failure
D.May be complete or may be
partial want or failure
Answer: Option A
90.
Which is a primary evidence?
A.The commissioner prepared a
report and signed it
B.A copy of medical
certificate prepared from the original
C.A photocopy of the will
D.Enlargement of a photo from
another photo
Answer: Option A
Section 105 of Evidence Act is intended to apply to which of the following?
A.Criminal trials
B.Civil suit
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option A
92.
In relation to F. I. R.
(First information Report) , which of the following statements is not correct?
A.It is not a substantive
evidence
B.It merely marks the
beginning of the investigation
C.It cannot be used as a
previous statement for any purpose
D.The informant need not be
an eye witness
Answer: Option C
93.
The following is not the
exception of the rule of hearsay:
A.Dying declaration
B.Res gestae
C.Medical Expert's Opinion
D.Confession
Answer: Option C
94.
In the case of Inder Mohan
Goswami and Another v. State of Uttaranchal and Others, the Supreme Court held
that non-bailable warrant should be:
A.Issued only when summons or
bailable warrants would be unlikely to have the desired result of bringing a
person to court
B.Liberally issued to ensure
speedy justice
C.Used only in offences
against the human body
D.Declared as
unconstitutional
Answer: Option A
95.
Under which one of the
following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, the doctrine of 'Res gestae' has
been dealt with
A.Section 5
B.Section 6
C.Section 7
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
96.
Under Section 90 of Indian
Evidence Act regarding presumption as to old documents 30 years old, the
relevant date of computation of that document is court is
A.Date of production of
document in court
B.Date of initiation of
proceedings in which document is produced
C.Date of oral evidence by a
witness
D.Date of start of hearing
Answer: Option B
97.
A' is tried for murder of 'B'
by administering Potassium Cynide. The fact that A has purchased potassium
cynide just before the murder of B is relevant under
A.Section 4
B.Section 8
C.Section 9
D.Section 10
Answer: Option B
98.
Presumption as to the
accuracy of maps and plans made by the authority of Government is contained in
A.Section 81 of Evidence Act
B.Section 82 of Evidence Act
C.Section 83 of Evidence Act
D.Section 84 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
99.
An inscription on a metal
plate or stone is a document:
A.Wrong
B.Right
C.Documents always on paper
only
D.There are only
archaeological things
Answer: Option B
100.
The presumption of
continuance of life is contained in
A.Section 106 of the Evidence
Act
B.Section 107 of the Evidence
Act
C.Section 108 of the Evidence
Act
D.Section 109 of the Evidence
Act
Answer: Option B
How many Sections and Chapters are there in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.167
Sections and 11 Chapters
B.172
Sections and 16 Chapters
C.160
Sections and 10 Chapters
D.180
Sections and 15 Chapters
Answer: Option A
2.
B'
is found dead having suffered injuries with a sharp weapon, 'A' while in police
custody confessed to killing 'B' with the motive of stealing his motorcycle
after following him from his office and having concealed the weapon of offence
i.e. a knife on his roof top. 'A' gets the knife recovered before the police.
In this case, under Section 27 Indian Evidence Act, the following would be
admissible:
A.Entire
statement including motive of stealing the motor cycle and manner in which the
murder was committed, i.e. following victim 'B' from his office, except the
confession
B.The
place from which the knife was produced and the knowledge of 'A' leading to
recovery of knife
C.The
fact that 'A' had murdered 'B' with the knife
D.Nothing
is admissible as the statement was made to a police officer after 'A' was
arrested
Answer: Option B
3.
What
is provision about an 'Accomplice'?
A.He
is not a competent witness
B.His
evidence is irrelevant
C.His
evidence should be believed blindly
D.His
evidence is relevant under Section 114 and 133 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option D
4.
A
confessional statement made before police
A.Is
admissible
B.Is
not admissible
C.Is
admissible only if it relates to a fact discovered in consequence of it
D.Is
admissible if it is made on oath in writing
Answer: Option B
5.
Which
one of the following statements is correct?
The protection of professional communication as provided under Indian Evidence
Act, 1872, in section 126 to 129 is available only
A.For
engaging an advocate to plead his case
B.For
disclosing communication to advocate or his colleagues
C.Before
commission of the offence or illegal acts
D.After
commission of the crime or illegal acts
Answer: Option D
6.
Point
out the incorrect statement
A.Generally,
burden of proof lies on the prosecution
B.Court
can presume certain facts and hence prosecution is not under an obligation to
prove the presumed facts
C.The
burden of proof lies on the defence if he pleads right of private defence
D.Burden
of proof never shifts from one side to another side
Answer: Option D
7.
What
is the meaning of retracted confession?
A.Confession
which is subsequently confirmed
B.Confession
which is subsequently assured
C.Confession
which is subsequently resiled
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option C
8.
Privilege
in respect of husband and wife under section 122 of Evidence Act relates to
A.Question
which a witness cannot be compelled to answer
B.Question
which a witness cannot be permitted to answer
C.Both
A and B
D.Only
B and not A
Answer: Option C
9.
In
which of the following cases hearsay evidence is not admissible?
A.Statement
of experts expressed in treaties, if the author is dead or cannot be found
B.Where
eye-witness told the facts to another person, statement of that person
C.If
the statement is of a deceased person, when it relates to cause of his death
D.If
the statement is part of the transaction-in-issue
Answer: Option B
10.
A
confession made to a Police Officer in the immediate presence of a Magistrate
is . . . . . . . .
A.Inadmissible
B.Relevant
C.Admissible,
if corroborated by the Magistrate
D.Admissible,
if corroborated by other evidence
Answer: Option C
Mark what is not a 'public document' within the meaning of the expression used
in the Evidence Act?
A.The records of Motor
Accident Claims Tribunal
B.The register of private
documents maintained in the office of Sub-Registrar under the Registration Act
C.The record of proceedings
of the House of the People maintained in the Lok Sabha Secretariat
D.Pronote executed by 'A'
while taking loan from a money lender
Answer: Option D
12.
Which one of the following
sections of the Indian Evidence Act has been substituted for the old section by
the Information Technology Act, 2000?
A.Section 39
B.Section 22
C.Section 47
D.Section 65
Answer: Option A
13.
In which section of Indian
Evidence Act, the Plea of Alibi is laid down?
A.Section 7
B.Section 26
C.Section 49
D.Section 11
Answer: Option D
14.
Admission' according to the
Indian Evidence Act includes statement made by:
1. Expressly referred person.
2. Agent of a party to proceeding authorized to make the statement.
3. Person whose liability must be proved.
4. Person from whom the party derived his interest in the subject matter.
Select the correct answer:
A.1, 2, 3, and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1 and 4 only
Answer: Option A
15.
'Burden of proof' means
A.The burden of proof as a
matter of law and pleadings is burden of establishing a case
B.The burden of proof as to
introduction of evidence
C.Both A and B
D.Only B and not A
Answer: Option C
16.
The Bill of Evidence Act was
prepared by
A.Fourth Law Commission
B.Sir Henry Maine
C.Sir James Stephen
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
17.
Examination of witnesses in
criminal cases through video conferencing is:
A.Permissible
B.Impermissible
C.Permissible at the option
of the witness
D.Permissible at the option
of the accused
Answer: Option A
18.
As regards question by a
party to its own witness under section 154 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872,
which of the following propositions/expressions is correct?
A.Two statements sought to be
contradicted in addition should be drawn to the previous statement
B.The person who calls a
witness is entitled to put any questions to him which might be put in
cross-examination by the adverse party
C.Corroborating a witness by
questioning him on surrounding circumstances
D.Former statement of witness
may be proved to corroborate later testimony as to same fact
Answer: Option B
19.
Under Section 3 of Evidence
Act, court does not include
A.Judge
B.Magistrate
C.Arbitrator
D.District Judge
Answer: Option C
20.
Which of the following
section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with relevancy of statements in maps,
charts and plans?
A.Section 32
B.Section 16
C.Section 36
D.Section 37
Answer: Option C
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
A.In civil cases, the
character to prove the conduct imputed to a party is not relevant
B.In criminal proceedings bad
character of the accused is not relevant, unless evidence of good character has
been given
C.In criminal proceedings
previous conviction of accused is relevant as evidence of bad character
D.All these
Answer: Option D
22.
Under the Evidence Act facts
not otherwise relevant are relevant . . . . . . . .
1. If they are significant
2. If they are inconsistent with any fact in issue or relevant fact
3. If they make the existence or nonexistence of any fact in issue or relevant
fact highly probable or improbable
Choose correct answer:
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.2 and 3 only
Answer: Option D
23.
Section 121 of Indian
Evidence Act provides for privileges in respect of which of following?
A.Husband and wife
B.Judges and Magistrate
C.Affairs of the State
D.Official Communications
Answer: Option B
24.
If a confession is otherwise
relevant, in which situation it will become irrelevant?
A.When it was made under a
promise of secrecy
B.When the person making
confession was drunk
C.When it was made in answer
to questions which he need not have answered
D.None of the above
Answer: Option D
25.
Which of the following is not
a competent witness
A.Dumb
B.Deaf
C.Minor
D.A person unable to
understand the questions put to them or unable to giving rational answers to
those questions
26.
Estoppel can be by:
A.Attestation
B.Recital in deed
C.Standing by
D.All of these
Answer: Option D
27.
Electronic Voting Machines
are not within the definition of 'Information' under which section of the RTI
Act?
A.Section 2 (f)
B.Section 2 (a)
C.Section 2 (c)
D.Section 2 (g)
Answer: Option A
28.
What is the evidentiary value
of the confession of a co-accused implicating himself as well as his other
non-confessing co-accused?
A.Such a confession is
relevant against all the co-accused
B.It shall not be relevant
against non-confessing co-accused
C.Such a confession amounts
to proof of guilt of all the co-accused
D.If the confessing
co-accused is acquitted of the main offence his confession shall cease to be
admissible
Answer: Option A
29.
For deciding whether or not a
witness shall be compelled to answer questions, the court shall have regard to
considerations which include as to whether such questions are
A.Proper if the truth of
imputation conveyed thereby would seriously affect the opinion of the court as
to the credibility of the witness on the subject matter of his deposition
B.Improper if the truth of
imputation conveyed thereby would affect in a slight degree the opinion of the
court as to the credibility of the witness on the subject matter of his
deposition
C.Both A and B
D.None of these
Answer: Option A
30. A document
claimed to be a Will shall not be used as evidence until
A.All attesting witnesses
have been called for the purpose of proving its execution
B.All attesting witnesses
alive and subject to the process of the Court and capable of giving evidence
have been called for the purpose of proving its execution
C.One attesting witness at
least has been called for the purpose of proving its execution, if there be an
attesting witness alive, and subject to the process of the Court and capable of
giving evidence
D.It has been registered in
accordance with the provisions of the Indian Registration Act, 1908
Answer: Option C
A retracted confession:
A.Can be made solely the
basis of conviction
B.Cannot be made solely the
basis of conviction under any circumstances
C.Cannot be made solely the
basis of conviction unless the same is corroborated
D.Both A and C are incorrect
Answer: Option C
32.
A' makes a false entry in his
electronic record for the purpose of using it as corroborative evidence in the
trial court. 'A' has
A.Fabricated false evidence
B.Not fabricated false
evidence
C.Committed forgery
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
33.
Photocopies of a document
made from the original are
A.Primary evidence
B.Secondary evidence
C.Hearsay evidence
D.None of the above is
correct
Answer: Option B
34.
The opinion of experts is not
relevant:
A.On a point of Indian law
B.On a point of foreign law
C.On matters of science
D.On handwriting or finger
impressions
Answer: Option A
35.
The term Judicial confession
means
A.It is made before a Police
Officer
B.It is caused by inducement,
threat or promise
C.It is made before any court
Officer
D.It is made before a
Magistrate
Answer: Option D
36.
The provisions relating to
the 'Burden of proof' have been provided under:
A.Section 91-100 of Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 84-90 of Indian Evidence
Act
C.Section 101-114A of Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 115-118 of Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
37.
In which of the following,
dying declaration is not relevant?
A.When the declarant in his
declaration speaks about the circumstances which laid to his death
B.When the declarant in his
declaration explains the reasons of his death
C.When the declarant in his
declaration speaks about the circumstances which led to the death of other
person
D.When the declarant has died
after declaration
Answer: Option C
38.
Which provision stipulates
that lunatic can be a competent witness?
A.Section 84 of Indian Penal
Code
B.Section 118 of Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 119 of Indian
Evidence Act
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
39.
Which one of the following
statements is not correct?
A.In civil cases character to
prove conduct is irrelevant
B.In criminal cases previous
good character is irrelevant
C.In civil cases character as
affecting damages is relevant
D.In criminal cases previous
bad character is irrelevant unless evidence has been given of good character
Answer: Option B
40.
A wishes to prove a dying
declaration by B. Applying Section 104, Indian Evidence Act:
A.A does need to prove B's
death
B.A must prove B's death
C.Either A and B
D.None of them
Answer: Option B
Which of the following is true concerning retracted confession?
A.It is the law that once a
confession is retracted, the Court should presume that it was tainted and be
thrown overboard
B.The retracted confession of
coaccused is very weak and if retracted, the same is admissible against the
maker of it
C.The Court is bound to take
the factum of retraction of confession
D.Retracted confession must
be looked upon with lesser concern
Answer: Option C
42.
Examination in chief of a
witness
A.Shall be by the party
calling the witness
B.Shall be by the adverse
party
C.Both A and B
D.Either A or B
Answer: Option A
43.
An extra-judicial confession
made by an accused to the Kotwar is admissible in evidence was laid down by a
Full Bench of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in-
A.State of Madhya Pradesh v.
Ramcharan
B.State of Madhya Pradesh v.
Chhotekhan
C.State of Madhya Pradesh v.
Premlal
D.Anni alias Ramesh v. State
of Madhya Pradesh
Answer: Option D
44.
Which of the following
section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with proof of other official
documents?
A.Section 78
B.Section 82
C.Section 71
D.Section 74
Answer: Option A
45.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872 the doctrine of res gestae applies to
A.Only civil proceedings
B.Only criminal proceedings
C.Only to administrative
tribunals
D.Both A and B
Answer: Option D
46.
Section 101 of the Indian
Evidence Act 1872, states that whoever desires the Court to give judgment as to
any legal right or liability dependent on existence of facts which he asserts
must prove the existence of that fact. This means that:
A.Burden of proving is a
legal responsibility of a party willing to have favourable judgment from the
Court
B.Under Section 101 of the
said Act, burden of proof is always on the first party to a case whether civil
or criminal
C.Burden of proof is always
on the plaintiff in a civil case
D.Proving of a fact means
proving it beyond doubt
Answer: Option D
47.
Motives of preparation and
conduct are relevant
A.Under section 6 of Evidence
Act
B.Under section 7 of Evidence
Act
C.Under section 8 of Evidence
Act
D.Under section 9 of Evidence
Act
Answer: Option C
48.
The maxim-"Nemo
moriturous preasumitur mentire" . . . . . . . . is applicable in the
Evidence Act to:
A.Section 32(1)
B.Section 32(2)
C.Section 32(3)
D.Section 32(4)
Answer: Option A
49.
Give the correct answer-
"All the admissions are confessions but all the confessions are not
admissions."
A.The statement is correct
B.The statement is incorrect
C.The statement is partly
correct and partly incorrect
D.All the above statements
are incorrect
Answer: Option B
50.
X' and 'Y' are jointly tried
for murder of 'Z' It is proved that 'X' said - Y and I murdered 'Z' This
confession of 'X':
A.May be taken into
consideration against Y
B.May not be taken into
consideration against Y because confession was made by 'X'
C.May be taken into
consideration or not depends upon facts of case
D.None of the above is
correct proposition of law
Answer: Option A
A agrees in writing to sell his black horse to B. A has two black horses. B
wishes to adduce an evidence as to which the black horse was expected to be
part of that deal. This evidence is
A.Barred by Section 91 of the
Evidence Act
B.Barred by Section 92 of the
Evidence Act
C.Permissible by Section 94
of the Evidence Act
D.Permissible by Section 96
of the Evidence Act
Answer: Option D
52.
Documents which are meant for
cross-examination of a witness of the other party or meant for refreshing the
memory of the witness may be produced:
A.At or before the settlement
of issues
B.After the settlement of
issues
C.At any time when they are
required
D.Along with pleadings
Answer: Option C
53.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
leading questions may generally be asked in
A.Cross-examination
B.Examination in-chief
C.Re-examination
D.All of these
Answer: Option A
54.
What do you understand by
Examination-in-chief?
A.Examination of witness by
the adverse party
B.Examination of witness,
subsequent to the cross-examination by the party who called him
C.Examination of witness by
the party who calls him
D.None of them
Answer: Option C
55.
Deepak, an accused of
committing the offence of supplying arms, informs his lawyer Shweta that he has
committed the offence and wishes her to defend him. In these circumstances
A.Shweta is duty bound to
inform the police
B.Shweta is duty bound to
inform the fact to the Magistrate
C.The communication is a
privileged one and protected from disclosure
D.The Trial Court can compel
Shweta to disclose the fact
Answer: Option C
56.
A judgment in an election
petition is not one of the judgments specifically recognised by
A.Section 41 of the Evidence
Act
B.Section 42 of the Evidence
Act
C.Section 56 of the Evidence
Act
D.Section 57 of the Evidence
Act
Answer: Option A
57.
Fact in issue mans the fact, existence
or non-existence of which is:
A.Admitted by the parties
B.Disputed by the parties
C.Non-disputed by the parties
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
58.
Confessional statement of the
accused in custody, when admissible:
A.If relates to commission of
crime by himself
B.If relates to commission of
crime only by the co-accused
C.Leading to discovery of a
fact
D.Relates to preparation of
crime
Answer: Option C
59.
Rabindra Kumar Pal@ Dara
Singh v. Republic of India a famous case coming under Section 30 of Evidence
Act is also well known as
A.Graham Stains Murder case
B.Graham Bells Murder case
C.Graham Street's Murder case
D.Graham Stoits Murder case
Answer: Option A
60.
The provision relating to
conclusive proof is given under section
A.Section 3
B.Section 4
C.Section 5
D.Section 6
Answer: Option B
The evidence accepted by the Court under section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872-
A.Amounts to proof
B.May be used as the basis of
conviction
C.Cannot be used as the basis
of conviction
D.Cannot be used for
corroboration
Answer: Option C
62.
Under which of the following
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act the contents of electronic records may be
proved?
A.Section 65-A
B.Section 65-B
C.Section 66
D.Section 67
Answer: Option B
63.
Burden as to proof of
ownership has been contemplated in which section of the Evidence Act 1872
A.Section 118 of the Evidence
Act 1872
B.Section 110 of the Evidence
Act 1872
C.Section 102 of the Evidence
Act 1872
D.Section 101 of the Evidence
Act 1872
Answer: Option B
64.
Scandalous questions is
related to which provision under the Indian Evidence Act
A.Section 149
B.Section 150
C.Section 151
D.Section 152
Answer: Option C
65. The
conditions in which the computer output to be deemed and admissible in evidence
as document is contained in
A.Section 65 (B) (1)
B.Section 65 (B) (2)
C.Section 65 (B) (5)
D.Section 65 (B) (4)
Answer: Option B
66. Objections
as to the admissibility of a document in evidence
A.Can be made at any state
during the trial
B.Can be made at the first
opportunity when the document is tendered in evidence
C.Can be raised for the first
time in appeal
D.All the above
Answer: Option B
67.
A, a client, says to B, an
advocate: "I wish to obtain possession of property by use of a forged deed
on which I request you to sue."
A.This communication is
protected from disclosure
B.This communication is not
protected from disclosure
C.Depends
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
68.
The report of a Medical
Officer stating the injuries of the victim is:
A.Conclusive in nature
B.Relevant and admissible in
evidence
C.Irrelevant
D.Substantive piece of
evidence
Answer: Option B
69. Section
65A deals with
A.Primary evidence
B.Secondary evidence
C.Electronic record
D.Oral evidence
Answer: Option C
70. A' wishes
to prove a dying declaration by 'B'. The burden to prove that 'B' is dead is
on:
A.The state
B.Family members of 'B'
C.Legal Heir of 'B'
D.A'
Answer: Option D
The evidence of contents of the information recorded or stored in a computer
may be given through computer output, without production of the original,
provided certain conditions are satisfied. The said conditions include that
A.If the computer was not
operating properly during the material part of the period over which it was
used to store or process the information for purposes of the relevant
activities, it was not such as to affect the electronic record or the accuracy
of its content
B.The information contained
in the electronic record is derived from such information fed into the computer
in the ordinary course of such activities
C.Neither A nor B
D.Both A and B
Answer: Option D
72. The
question is whether A is ravished
1. Shortly after alleged rape, A lodged a complaint relating to the crime.
2. Instead of making any complaint, she said that she had been ravished.
What of the following proposition is correct under the Law of Evidence?
A.I is not relevant under
Section 8 of the Evidence Act
B.II is not relevant under
Section 8 of the Evidence Act
C.I and II both are not
correct under Section 8 of the Evidence Act
D.II is relevant but it is
not relevant under Section 8 of the Evidence Act
Answer: Option D
73.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872 the provision of relevancy of oral admission as to contents of electronic
records is provided under
A.Section 22 of Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 22A of Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 23 of Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 23A of Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
74.
Out of the following which is
not an exception of Hearsay evidence?
A.Dying Declaration
B.Res geste
C.Expert opinion
D.Admission
Answer: Option C
75. In
prosecution for an offence under section 376 of Indian Penal Code, where the
question of consent is an issue, it shall not be permissible to adduce evidence
or to put questions in the cross examination of the victim as to the general
immoral character, or previous sexual experience, of such victim with any
person for proving such consent or the quality of consent is provided in which
Section of Indian Evidence Act.
A.145
B.146
C.147
D.148
Answer: Option B
76.
In the Indian Evidence Act
previous conviction of a person is relevant under which of the following
Sections?
A.Section 14 Explanation I
B.Section 14 Explanation II
C.Section 15
D.Section 16
Answer: Option B
77.
A, an accused wants to submit
true copy of a document as secondary evidence. The original is with the
opposite party and he has failed to produce the same. Which of the following
statements will hold true in the case?
A.The evidence cannot be
admitted because it fails to satisfy the requirements of section 64 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
B.The evidence cannot be
admitted because it fails to satisfy the requirements of section 65 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C.The evidence can be
admitted as it satisfies the requirements of both section 63 and section 65 of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D.The evidence can be
admitted under section 60
Answer: Option C
78. In
criminal proceedings, the fact that the accused person has a bad character is:
A.Irrelevant
B.Relevant
C.Above A is correct, unless
evidence has been given that he has a good character
D.All the above are incorrect
Answer: Option C
79. Assertion
(A): A confession always goes against the maker of it,
provided it has been made freely and voluntarily.
Reason
(R): A confession is inadmissible against a co-accused.
Choose the correct answer:
A.Both A and R are true and R
is the correct explanation of A
B.Both A and R are true but R
is not the correct explanation of A
C.A is true but R is false
D.A is false but R is true
Answer: Option C
80.
In which of the following
cases, the court may presume under Section 114:
A.That a man in possession of
stolen goods after the theft is either the thief or has received the goods
knowing them to be stolen
B.That judicial and official
acts have been regularly performed
C.That evidence which could
be and is not produced would, if produced, be unfavourable to the person
withholding it (e.g. the police withholding a piece of evidence)
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
81.
An admission under section 17
of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 can be
A.Oral only
B.Oral and documentary
C.Oral, documentary, or a
statement contained in electronic form
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
82. The court
shall take judicial notice of
A.Foreign judicial records
B.National Flag of a State
not recognized by India
C.Stephen's Digest on
Criminal Law
D.Rule of Road on land (and
in sea)
Answer: Option D
83. Defence of
alibi is governed by
A.Section 6 of the Evidence
Act
B.Section 9 of the Evidence
Act
C.Section 12 of the Evidence
Act
D.Section 11 of the Evidence
Act
Answer: Option D
84.
If it is proved that a man
has not been heard of for . . . . . . . . by those who would naturally have
heard of him if he were alive, the presumption under section 108 of the Indian
Evidence Act is that he is dead:
A.5 year
B.7 year
C.15 year
D.20 year
Answer: Option B
85. Confession
of a co-accused, not required to be an oath and cannot be tested by cross
examination
1. Is no evidence within the meaning of Section 3 of Evidence Act and cannot be
the foundation of a conviction
2. The only limited use which can be made of a confession of a co-accused is by
way of furnishing an additional reason for believing such other evidences as
exists
3. It is a very weak type of evidence and is much weaker even than the evidence
of an approver .
In the aforesaid propositions:
A.All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B.Only 1 and 3 are correct
C.Only 1 and 2 are correct
D.Only 2 and 3 are correct
Answer: Option A
86.
Definition of secondary
evidence has been given under . . . . . . . . of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.Section 61
B.Section 62
C.Section 63
D.Section 64
Answer: Option C
87.
Section 113B of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872, deals with:
A.Conclusive proof of
legitimacy of birth of a child
B.Presumption as to abetment
of suicide by a married woman
C.Presumption as to dowry
death
D.Presumption as to certified
copies of foreign judicial records
Answer: Option C
88. Arrest and
detention of a person in civil imprisonment in execution of the decree
A.Absolves him from liability
under the decree but can be re-arrested
B.Does not absolve him and
the person can be re-arrested
C.Does not absolve him but
the person cannot be re-arrested
D.Absolves him from the
liability altogether and cannot be re-arrested
Answer: Option C
89.
Contents of documents may be
proved:
A.By secondary evidence
B.By primary evidence
C.A and B both are correct
D.Above all options are
incorrect
Answer: Option C
90.
When can prosecution be
allowed to ask leading question to its own witness?
A.In examination-in-chief
B.When the witness is
declared hostile
C.In re-examination
D.In no circumstance
Answer: Option B
In which of the following cases was the principle of estoppel clearly framed?
A.Polanski v. Conde Nast
Publications Ltd.
B.R v. Faster
C.Queen v. Holmes
D.Pickard v. Sears
Answer: Option D
92.
Section 112 of Evidence Act,
1872 applied when there is a dispute relating to the:
A.Maternity of child
B.Paternity of child
C.Maternity and paternity of
child
D.Neither maternity nor
paternity of child
Answer: Option B
93.
H' says that 'Y' told him
that 'A' killed 'B'. This is
A.Primary evidence
B.Best evidence
C.Hearsay evidence
D.Admission
Answer: Option C
94.
Section 113-A deals with-
A.Presumption as to dowry
death
B.Presumption as to abetment
of sucide by a married woman
C.Both A and B
D.None of them
Answer: Option B
95.
Fact judicially noticeable
need . . . . . . . .
A.To be proved like other
fact
B.To be proved like special
fact
C.Not to be proved
D.To be proved as an expert's
opinion
Answer: Option C
96.
Under the provisions of
Section 45 of Evidence Act, the opinion of an expert can be for:
A.Identity of finger impression
B.Identity of hand writing
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option C
97.
Leading questions may be
asked in examination-in-chief
A.With permission of the
court as to matters which are introductory
B.If in the opinion of the
court the matter involved has been already sufficiently proved
C.Neither a nor B
D.Both a and B
Answer: Option D
98.
Section 58 of the Evidence
Act deals with
A.Formal admissions
B.Evidentiary admissions
C.Formal as well as
evidentiary admissions
D.Proof of facts by oral
evidence
Answer: Option A
99.
Which one of the following
does not come within the meaning of "Document" under the Indian
Evidence Act?
A.A writing
B.A map
C.A telephonic talk
D.A word photographed
Answer: Option C
100.
Which of the following
statements is not correct:
A.Leading questions may be
asked in cross-examination
B.Witnesses to character may
be cross examined
C.A person summoned to
produce document does not become a witness
D.A party may with the
permission of the court cross-examine his own witness
Answer: Option B
.
An,
accused of murder, alleges that, by grave and sudden provocation, he was
deprived of the power of self-control under Indian Evidence Act, the burden of
proof is on
A.Prosecution
B.Accused
C.Victim
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option B
2. A' is charged with travelling on a railway without ticket, the
burden of proving that 'A' had a ticket is on-
A.Ticket
checker
B.Railway
C.A'
D.Prosecution
Answer: Option C
3.
Queen
Empress v. Abdullah is a leading case on
A.Admission
confession
B.Confession
C.Statement
D.Dying
declaration
Answer: Option D
4.
A
'Dying Declaration' to be admissible under Indian Evidence Act must be made
before
A.Magistrate
B.Police
Officer
C.Doctor
or Private person
D.Magistrate,
Police Officer, Doctor or Private person
Answer: Option D
5. Which of the statements is true?
Admission of a party
A.Is
conclusive proof
B.Is
irrelevant
C.May
operate as estoppel
D.Has
no probative value
Answer: Option C
6. Which of the following is a mismatch?
A.Matrimonial
communication ⇔
Section 122
B.Official
communication ⇔
Section 124
C.Professional
communication ⇔
Section 126
D.Confidential
communication with legal advisor ⇔ Section 127
Answer: Option D
7.
Which
one of the following is a correct statement relating to cross examination?
A.Witnesses
to character may be cross-examined
B.Leading
questions cannot be asked in cross-examination
C.A
person summoned to produce a document can be cross-examined
D.A
witness may not be cross-examined as to previous statements made by him in
writing
Answer: Option A
8.
Section
79 of Evidence Act applies to
A.Certificates
issued by a Government officer
B.Certified
copies issued by a Government officer
C.Other
documents duly certified to be genuine by a Government officer
D.All
the above
Answer: Option D
9.
Under
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 which one of the following is not essential condition
for admissibility of dying declaration?
A.The
statement as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in
his death
B.Person
making statement must be under expectation of death at the time of making such
statement
C.Death
of the person making dying declaration is must
D.The
statement must be to the cause of his death
Answer: Option B
10.
What
minimum number of witnesses are required to prove offence of dacoity in a
trial?
A.5
B.8
C.Judge
directs how many witnesses are to be examined
D.No
particular number of witnesses is prescribed
E.None
of the above
Answer: Option D
Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with admissions
not conclusive proof, but may be estop?
A.Section 30
B.Section 31
C.Section 22
D.Section 39
Answer: Option B
12.
A and B are jointly tried for
the murder of C. Confession of B recorded long after the murder allegedly
committed in pursuance of a conspiracy would be-
A.Inadmissible in evidence
B.Admissible in evidence
under Section 10
C.Admissible in evidence
under Section 30
D.Admissible in evidence both
under Section 10 and 30
Answer: Option C
13.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
the evidence given by dog squad is
A.Not admissible
B.Not admissible because
dependent on the canine inference
C.Dogs cannot give evidence
on oath
D.Admissible
Answer: Option D
14.
Under the Indian Evidence Act
1872 the court may permit such questions which it regards indecent or
scandalous if
A.They relate to facts in
issue
B.They relate to the
character of the accused
C.Accused does not object
D.Prosecutor demands it
Answer: Option A
15.
In which of the following
cases the evidence given by the witness will not be relevant under section 33
of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.When the witness is staying
abroad
B.When the witness is dead
C.When witness cannot be
found
D.When the witness is in coma
Answer: Option A
16.
Who amongst the following is
not an accomplice?
A.A bribe giver
B.A detective
C.A prostitute
D.A person receiving stolen
property
Answer: Option B
17.
Which of the following
statements is not correct regarding 'admission' under section 17 of Indian
Evidence Act?
A.Admission operates as
waiver of proof
B.Admission is a statement
which is necessarily against one's own interest
C.A statement which suggests
some inference as to fact-in-issue or relevant fact, may be admission
D.It is generally irrelevant
as to whom an admission is made
Answer: Option D
18.
In a joint trial where
several accused persons are being tried, one accused examines himself as a
witness, now
A.All the other co-accused,
if there are more than one co-accused other than the accused, examining himself
as a witness, have a right to cross-examine that accused, as a matter of right
B.All the other co-accused
have a right to cross-examine that accused if the accused examining himself
deposing something against one of the coaccused
C.Only that co-accused has a
right to cross-examine the accused examining himself as witness, against whom
such an accused has deposed something
D.The co-accused do not have
any right at all to cross-examine, the accused examining himself as a witness
under any circumstances
Answer: Option C
19.
Rules relating to
'identification of parade' are contained in which of the following section of
Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 9
B.Section 19
C.Section 29
D.Section 39
Answer: Option A
20.
The tenn "Judicial
notice" under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, means
A.Notice given by the court
B.Information given to the
court
C.To ask for evidence
D.To recognise without proof
something an existing
Answer: Option D
Indian Evidence Act: Who amongst the following are competent witness?
A.Chance witness
B.Victim of rape
C.Related witness
D.All of these
Answer: Option D
22.
Section 92 of the Evidence
Act is applicable to disputes between:
A.The parties to the
instrument only
B.Two strangers where the
document is in question
C.A party to the instrument
and a stranger
D.All of the above
Answer: Option A
23.
The facts which form part of
same transaction are relevant under
A.Section 5 of the Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 6 of the Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 7 of the Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 8 of the Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
24.
In a trial of Murder, Rape
and Dacoity No. of witnesses required 10, 8 and 6 respectively:
A.Right
B.Wrong it require 12, 10 and
8 witnesses respectively
C.Judge directs how much
witnesses to be adduced
D.No particular number of
witnesses is required
Answer: Option D
25.
What is carbon footprint:
A.It is a market based
approach for controlling pollution by providing economic incentives for
achieving reduction in the emissions of pollutants
B.If refer to selling of
carbon credits to customers
C.It is certificate showing
that a company or government has paid to have a certain amount of carbon
dioxide removed from the environment
D.It is the total set of
greenhouse gases emissions caused by an organization or product or person
Answer: Option D
26.
Handwriting of 'A' on
document 'B' can be proved by:
A.The digital signature of
'A'
B.A person who claims to have
received document 'B' purported to have been signed and written by 'A'
C.A person who in ordinary
course of business has habitually received documents purported to have been
written by 'A'
D.A person who states that he
is a friend of 'A'
Answer: Option C
27.
Who amongst the following is
not a competent witness?
A.Chance witness
B.Victim of rape
C.Relation witness
D.Accused person in
proceeding in which he is an accused
Answer: Option D
28.
In criminal cases, the good
character is relevant under which Section of the Evidence Act?
A.Section 51
B.Section 52
C.Section 53
D.Section 54
Answer: Option C
29.
Which of the following is
correct statement according to law?
A.An accomplice shall be
competent witness against an accused person
B.Leading question may be
asked in cross-examination of a witness
C.The court may permit a
party, who, calls a witness, to put any question to him, which might be put in
cross-examination by the adverse party
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
30.
A and B were married. During
marriage A committed forgery and communicated it to B, his wife. After some
time divorce took place between A and B, and B married C. In a charge against
this forgery prosecution wants to produce B as a witness against A. Can they do
so?
A.They can do so as B is now
married to C
B.They can do so as forgery
is an offence against public policy
C.They cannot do so as B is
bound not to be witness against A under privileged communications
D.They cannot do so as B has
now nothing in common with A and is a third party
Answer: Option C
Under Indian Evidence Act, the defence of plea of alibi of an accused is
relevant In:
A.Section 12
B.Section 13
C.Section 11
D.Section 10
Answer: Option C
32.
A' is accusedof waging war
against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in
which property is destroyed, troops are attacked and goals are broken open. 'A'
is not present at all of them yet the occurrenceof these facts is relevant
because-
A.They constitute a motive
for relevant fact
B.They show preparation for
relevant facts
C.They are effect of relevant
facts
D.They form part of the
general transaction
Answer: Option D
33.
The good faith of a sale by a
son just come of age to a father is in question in a suit brought by the son.
The burden of proving the good faith of the transaction is on the
A.Father
B.Son
C.Rule of Presumption will
apply
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
34.
According to Section 113A of
Indian Evidence Act, 1872, Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married
woman, it must be shown that the suicide must be committed:
A.Within a period often years
from the date of her marriage
B.Within a period of six
years from the date of her marriage
C.Within a period of seven
years from the date of her marriage
D.Within a period of one year
from the date of her marriage
Answer: Option C
35.
Section 154 of the Indian
Evidence Act deals with which of the following?
A.Compellable witness
B.Interested witness
C.Hostile witness
D.Accomplice
Answer: Option C
36.
Evidence by a dumb witness in
sign language must be given:
A.In open court
B.In chambers of the Judge
C.At the residence of the
witness
D.In open court and
videographed
Answer: Option D
37.
Which of the following
judgment, Supreme Court laid down the procedure regarding dealing with the
objections as to the admissibility of the documents and other items of
evidence?
A.Baldev Singh v. State of
Punjab, (AIR 2009 SC 913)
B.Balu Yadav v. State of
Bihar, (AIR 1997 SC 2678)
C.Chhotanney v. State of
Uttar Pradesh, (AIR 2009 SC 2013)
D.Bipan Chander Panchal v.
State of Gujarat, (AIR 2001 SC 1158)
E.None of the above
Answer: Option D
38.
Which of the following
section(s) of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes confession of co-accused
admissible?
A.30
B.25
C.18
D.Both B and C
E.None of the above
Answer: Option A
39.
Evidence means and includes
A.Only oral evidence
B.Only documentary evidence
C.Both oral evidence and
documentary evidence
D.Only such oral evidence
based on documents
Answer: Option C
40.
Section 93 of the Indian
Evidence Act, applies to the:
A.Ambiguitas patens
B.Ambiguitas latens
C.Both A and B
D.None of these
Answer: Option A
An expert may give an account of experiments performed by him for the purpose
of forming his opinion under which section of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 50
B.Section 49
C.Section 51
D.Section 47
Answer: Option C
42.
Statement of relevant fact by
person who is dead or cannot be found is relevant
A.Civil proceedings only
B.Criminal proceedings only
C.Neither in Civil nor in
Criminal proceedings
D.Both Civil as well as
Criminal Proceedings
Answer: Option D
43.
Copies made from or compared
with the original is:
A.Primary evidence
B.Secondary evidence
C.Inadmissible evidence
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
44.
Section 159 of Evidence Act
provides for
A.The credit of a witness may
be impeached
B.Court's power to disallow
indecent or scandalous question
C.Witness can refresh his
memory
D.To put any question which
might be put in cross-examination by party to his own witness
Answer: Option C
45.
Which of the following
Sections was amended by the Information Technology Act, 2000?
A.Section 6 of the Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 17 of the Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 32 of the Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 41 of the Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
46.
The tenn material fact as
used in the law of pleadings generally refers to
1. Facta probantia.
2. Facta probanda.
3. Evidence adduced.
4. Fact in issue.
Select the correct answer:
A.1 only
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 4
D.2 and 4
Answer: Option B
47.
State of Uttar Pradesh v.
Deoman Upadhyay is concerned with
A.Conspiracy
B.Confession
C.Estoppel
D.Presumption
Answer: Option B
48.
Public document under the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 can be proved by:
A.Oral evidence
B.The writer of the certified
copy
C.Certified copy
D.Any of the above
Answer: Option C
49.
What is oral evidence?
A.Statements made before
court
B.Direct evidence
C.Deposition before court,
only after police had recorded the statement
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
50.
What is judicial notice?
A.Notice issued by a judge
B.Demeanour of a witness
noticed by judge
C.Facts brought to the notice
of judge
D.None of the above
Answer: Option D
51.
A Child witness below the age
of . . . . . . . . cannot give evidence in the Indian Courts.
A.15 years
B.12 years
C.10 years
D.There is no such limit
Answer: Option D
52.
The plea of 'Alibi' is
established by:
A.Prosecution
B.Accused
C.Either by prosecution or by
accused
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
53.
Under which Section of
Evidence Act the witness has been given right to refresh his memory?
A.Section 145
B.Section 159
C.Section 165
D.Section 157
Answer: Option B
54.
During the course of trial of
a murder case, which of the following may be proved:
A.Statement of confession of
accused made in police custody during investigation
B.Recovery of the weapon of
offence on basis of statement made by accused during investigation of another
case
C.After recovery of dead
body, the statement of accused as to the place where he threw the dead body
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
55.
A confession by an accused
made while in police custody, be proved against him only when made in the
immediate presence of:
A.A doctor
B.A lawyer
C.A judicial magistrate
D.Family members
Answer: Option C
56.
By Information Technology
Act, 2000, amendment made in:
A.Section 17 of the Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 34 of the Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 35 of the Indian
Evidence Act
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
57.
A prosecutes B for adultery
with C, A's wife. B denies that C is A's wife, but the Court convicts B of
adultery. Afterwards, C is prosecuted for bigamy in marrying B during 'A's
lifetime. C says that she never was A's wife. Which statement is correct as per
Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.The judgment against B is
not relevant as against C
B.The judgment against B is
relevant as against C
C.The judgment against B may
be admitted against C if thirty years old
D.The judgment against B is
relevant as against A
E.None of these
Answer: Option A
58.
Definition of primary
evidence has been given under . . . . . . . . of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.Section 61 of Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 62 of Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 63 of Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 64 of Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
59.
Identification parade is
relevant under
A.Section 8 of the Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 9 of the Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 10 of the Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 11 of the Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
60.
A person suffering from any
mental disorder
A.Can be exempted from
criminal liability ipso-facto
B.Cannot be exempted at all
C.Can be exempted from such
liability at the discretion of the court
D.Can be exempted from such
liability on proof by expert evidence of this effect
Answer: Option D
Facts judicially noticeable:
A.May be proved
B.Need not be proved
C.Need to be proved
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
62.
Mark the correct statement
A.An accomplice is unworthy
of credit, unless he is corroborated in material particulars
B.An accomplice shall be a
competent witness against an accused, and conviction is not illegal merely
because it proceeds upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above is
correct
Answer: Option C
63.
The following is not the
example of "Best Evidence Rule"
A.Section 60
B.Section 64
C.Section 91
D.Section 164
Answer: Option D
64.
Which of the following is the
case relating to "Judicial notice" in the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Bir Singh v. U. R.
B.Ram Narain v. U. R.
C.Hari Shankar Jain v. Sonia
Gandhi
D.Pershadi v. State
Answer: Option C
65.
A voluntary confession is
admissible in evidence
A.When made to a police
officer
B.When made to Magistrate of
competent jurisdiction
C.When made to a village
sarpanch with request to save him from police
D.When made to a police
officer who kept him in his custody
Answer: Option B
66.
Proof of a fact for the
purposes of evidence depends on:
A.Rigid mathematical
demonstration
B.Probability of its
existence
C.Accuracy of the statement
D.None of the above
Answer: Option D
67.
When is it not necessary to
call the certifying writer of the document to prove the document?
A.When the document is not a
will
B.When the document is 30
years old
C.A and B are correct
D.A and B are wrong
Answer: Option C
68.
Which of the following
Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not deal with the Criminal
matters:
A.Section 23
B.Section 27
C.Section 53
D.Section 133
Answer: Option A
69.
Under which Section of the
Indian Evidence Act provision relating to "Examination-in-Chief" is
provided?
A.Section 138
B.Section 137
C.Section 136
D.Section 135
Answer: Option B
70.
Which one of the following is
correctly matched under the Indian Evidence Act 1872?
A.Burden of Proof - Section
101
B.Accomplice - Section 116
C.Dumb Witness - Section 117
D.Dowry Death - Section 109
Answer: Option A
71.
Which of the following fact
is not relevant in civil and criminal cases under section 8 of the Indian
Evidence Act
A.Motive
B.Attempt
C.Conduct
D.Preparation
Answer: Option B
72.
The general principle of the
law of evidence is that it is the judge who will decide the admissibility of
evidence. When the judge is in the doubt as to admissibility of a particular
piece of evidence?
A.He should not declare in
favour of its admissibility
B.He should declare in favour
of its admissibility
C.He should refer the matter
before the High Court
D.He will follow his
discretion
Answer: Option D
73.
Section 124 of the Evidence
Act provides for privileges in respect of
A.Official communication
B.Professional communication
C.Communication as to the
information of commission of offence
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
74.
Which of the following
statements is correct?
A.Confession caused by inducement,
threat or promise flowing from person in authority, giving reasonable
impression to the accused that he would thereby avoid punishment is relevant
B.Confession by accused while
in custody of police, even if made in the immediate presence of a magistrate,
shall not be proved
C.The confession of the
accused made while in custody of police may be proved if as a consequence of
information received thereby a relevant fact is discovered
D.None of these
Answer: Option C
75.
Which Sections of the Indian
Evidence Act deal with the proof of customary practices
A.Sections 34, 46, 47
B.Sections 33, 45, 48
C.Sections 35, 47 and 49
D.Sections 35, 48 and 49
Answer: Option D
76.
The confession by a person
will be considered not relevant if they are
A.Inducement
B.Threat
C.Promise
D.All of above
Answer: Option D
77.
The criteria for 'res
gestae':
A.Proximity of time and place
B.Community of purpose
C.Continuity of action
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
78.
Which one among the following
statements according to the Indian Evidence Act is correct?
A.All facts can be proved by
oral evidence
B.All facts except the
contents of documents can be proved by oral evidence
C.All facts except the
contents of documents or electronic records may be proved by oral evidence
D.All contents of documents
can be proved by oral evidence
Answer: Option C
79.
The provision relating to estoppel
is contained in the Evidence Act in-
A.Section 115
B.Section 117
C.Section 118
D.Section 114
Answer: Option A
80.
Under the Evidence Act,
anything said, done or written by a conspirator when the conspiracy is afoot,
is relevant against the co-conspirator on the basis of the doctrine of . . . .
. . . .
A.Conspiracy
B.Shared knowledge
C.Agency
D.Secrecy
Answer: Option C
"Leading question" has been defined in Indian Evidence Act under
A.Section 41
B.Section 121
C.Section 141
D.Section 144
Answer: Option C
82.
If on the carbon copies of a
letter written on a typewriter, signature have been put on the first letter
then other copies:
A.Will also be primary
evidence
B.Will be secondary evidence
C.Will be no evidence
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
83.
Presumption under section 114
of Evidence Act can be raised having regard to the common course of
A.Natural events
B.Human conduct
C.Public and private business
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
84.
What is not true about the
mode of proof for a will?
A.One attesting witness at
least to be examined
B.Not necessary to call any
attesting witness if will has been registered
C.Not proof required if it is
admitted by an heir of the executant
D.Where attesting witness not
found handwriting of attesting witness and signature of executant must be
proved
Answer: Option B
85.
Irrefutable presumptions of
law are indicated by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 by the expression of
A.May presume
B.Shall presume
C.Conclusive proof
D.All of these
Answer: Option C
86.
A dying declaration to be
admissible must made be a
A.Magistrate
B.Doctor
C.Police Officer
D.All these
Answer: Option A
87.
A', a client says to 'B' an
advocate - "I have committed forgery and I wish you to defend me".
His communication is:
A.Protected from disclosure
because of Section 122 of Evidence Act
B.Not protected from
disclosure because of Section 122 of Evidence Act
C.Protected from disclosure
because of Section 126 of Evidence Act
D.Not protected from
disclosure because of Section 126 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
88.
Under Evidence Act, a
statement made by co-accused at the time of commission of the offence is:
A.Admissible under section 6
B.Admissible under section 8
C.Admissible under section 30
D.Not at all admissible
Answer: Option A
89.
Out of the following which is
not a secondary evidence?
A.Copies made from the
original by mechanical process
B.Copies made from or
compared with the original
C.Oral accounts of the
contents of a document given by a person who has himself seen it
D.Oral account of a
Photograph
Answer: Option D
90.
In which of the following
cases has the Supreme Court summarized and reiterated the rule of
inadmissibility of confession made to Police Officer in Police custody?
A.Pawan Kumar v. State of
Uttar Pradesh
B.Ram Krishna Mishra v. State
of Uttar Pradesh
C.Indra Dalal v. State of
Haryana
D.State of Delhi v. V. C.
Shukla
Answer: Option C
Evidence Act -
An estate called "the Rampore tea estate" is sold by a deed which
contains a map of the property sold. The fact that land not included in the map
had always been regarded as part of the estate and was meant to pass by the
deed, this fact-
A.Can be proved
B.Cannot be proved
C.Proved by the court's
permission
D.Proved as secondary
evidence
Answer: Option B
92.
Facts supporting or rebutting
the opinion of the experts are relevant under
A.Section 45 of the Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 46 of the Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 50 of the Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 51 of the Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
93.
Indian Evidence Act does not
apply to the:
1. Proceedings before the arbitrator
2. Affidavits submitted by the deponent of his own
3. Statements made by a child
4. Statements of a person whose past is criminal
Select the correct answer:
A.1 and 4
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.2 only
Answer: Option C
94.
Statement by a person who is
dead is a relevant fact under . . . . . . . . of the Indian Evidence Act
A.Section 32(1)
B.Section 32(4)
C.Section 32(5)
D.Section 32(6)
Answer: Option A
95.
Burden of proof:
A.Partially determines the
right to begin
B.Substantially determines
the right to begin
C.Wholly determines the right
to begin
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
96.
Section 7 of the Evidence Act
does not include which one of the following?
A.Occasion
B.Cause
C.Purpose
D.Effect
Answer: Option C
97.
Among the following which is
not a public document?
A.An unregistered family
partition deed
B.A registered sale deed
C.A decision of High Court
D.A decision of Civil Court
Answer: Option A
98.
Facts of which judicial
notice has to be taken by the Court are stated under which of following
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 56
B.Section 57
C.Section 58
D.Section 55
Answer: Option B
99.
Which one of the following is
a judgement-in-personam?
A.A final judgement in a suit
for divorce
B.A final judgement in a suit
for restitution of conjugal rights
C.A final judgement in a suit
for insolvency
D.A final judgement in a suit
for admiralty matters
Answer: Option B
100.
Leading questions may be
asked in-
A.Examination-in chief
B.Cross-examination
C.Re-examination
D.All the above
Answer: Option B
Indian Evidence Act: Opinion of an expert is-
A.Supportive
and corroborative in nature
B.Relevant
but unsafe
C.A
conclusive proof
D.Both
supportive and corroborative in natures Relevant but unsafe
Answer: Option D
2.
Which
of the following Sections of the Evidence Act deals with 'burden of proving
fact especially within knowledge'?
A.Section
105
B.Section
106
C.Section
107
D.Section
108
Answer: Option B
3.
A
relevant confession will become irrelevant when-
A.Made
to a police officer
B.Made
under a promise of secrecy
C.When
the accused was drunk
D.In
consequence of a deception practised on the accused
Answer: Option A
4.
In
which of the following cases, in a proceeding of rape when the question is
whether it was without the consent of the women alleged to have been raped and
she states in her evidence that she had no consent, the Court shall presume
that she did not consent?
A.When
a police officer commits rape on a woman in his custody
B.When
a police officer commits rape within the limits of the Police Station to which
he is appointed
C.Whoever
commits gangrape
D.Who
even commits rape on a woman when she was under twelve years of age
E.All
of the above
Answer: Option E
5.
Existence
of 'any right' or 'custom' may be proved under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under
A.Section
13 only
B.Section
14 only
C.Section
15 only
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option A
6.
In
which section of Indian Evidence Act, opinion of third person is relevant?
A.Section
14
B.Section
34
C.Section
44
D.Section
45
Answer: Option D
7.
Point
out the incorrect statement:
A.If
a contract is contained in several letters, all the letters in which it is
contained, must be proved
B.If
a contract is contained in a bill of exchange, the bill of exchange must be
prove
C.If
a bill of exchange is drawn in a set of three, one only need be proved
D.If
'A' gives 'B' receipt for money paid by 'B', oral evidence is offered of the
payment, the evidence is not admissible
Answer: Option D
8.
Dying
declaration can be sole basis of conviction if it inspires full confidence of
the court. The court should be satisfied
A.That
deceased was in a fit state of mind at the time of making the statement
B.That
it was not the result of tutoring, prompting or product of imagination
C.That
deceased was not in a fit state of mind at the time of making the statement
D.Both
A and B
Answer: Option D
9.
Which
is the most appropriate definition in relation to a hostile witness? A hostile
witness:
A.Is
one who from the manner in which he gives the evidence shows that he is not
desirous of telling the truth to the court
B.Is
a witness who is gained over by the opposite party
C.Is
one called by a party to prove a particular fact, who fails to prove such fact
or proves an opposite fact
D.Is
one who is not produced out of the fear that he might disfavour the party who
has to produce him
Answer: Option C
10.
In
criminal proceedings, the fact that the person accused is of good character is
relevant according to
A.Section
53
B.Section
54
C.Section
55
D.Section
56
Answer: Option A
Which one of the following statements about Test Identification Parade (TIP) is
not correct?
A.Test Identification Parade
(TIP) is a piece of substantive evidence
B.Test Identification Parade
(TIP) can be used by the Court for the purpose of corroboration
C.Test Identification Parade
(TIP) can be held only when the accused are not previously known to the witness
D.Test Identification Parade
(TIP) should be conducted immediately after the arrest of the accused
Answer: Option A
12.
Reasonable ground exists for
believing that A has joined in a conspiracy to wage war against the Government
of India but he only knows B who had procured arms and explosives in Pakistan
for the purpose of the conspiracy. Which of the following is not relevant to
prove A's complicity in it-
A.C collected money in
Calcutta for a like object
B.D persuaded persons to join
the conspiracy in Mumbai
C.A utilized the explosives
to blow-up the Parliament House but the attempt proved unsuccessful
D.After the attempt A wrote a
letter to B asking him to supply explosives again
Answer: Option A
13.
Under Section 27 of Evidence
Act, 'discovery of fact' includes
A.The object found
B.The place from where it is
produced
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option C
14.
Test Identification Parade
under Section 9 of Evidence Act should be taken by whom?
A.Magistrate
B.Police officer not below
the rank of Sub-inspector
C.Any person
D.All of the above
Answer: Option B
15.
Which Section of the Evidence
Act is called a "residuary" Section dealing with relevancy of facts:
A.Section 11
B.Section 12
C.Section 13
D.Section 14
Answer: Option A
16.
What does police-custody in
the context of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 mean?
A.Handcuffing by the police
B.Confining the accused
inside the police station by the police
C.Restricting the movement of
the accused
D.Some kind of surveillance
and restriction by the police
Answer: Option D
17.
The question is whether the
murder of X was committed by Y. The fact that Y produces an admission slip of
hospital indicating dislocation of his hip bone during the period of alleged
murder. Which one among the following is the correct provision of The Indian
Evidence Act under which it is relevant?
A.Section 6
B.Section 9
C.Section 10
D.Section 11
Answer: Option D
18.
Which of the following
statements, as per provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is not correct?
A.Facts which are
inconsistent with any fact in issue, shall not be relevant
B.Facts not otherwise
relevant are relevant if by themselves or in connection with other facts, they
make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact
highly probable or improbable
C.Any fact is relevant, which
shows or constitutes a motive or preparation for any fact in issue or relevant
fact
D.Admissions are not
conclusive proof of the matters admitted, but they may operate as estoppels
under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Option A
19.
"An accomplice is a
competent witness against an accused" is provided in which of the
following Section of Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 130
B.Section 131
C.Section 132
D.Section 133
Answer: Option D
20.
A person is presumed to be
alive if it is shown that he was alive within . . . . . . . . years
A.Fourteen
B.Twenty
C.Seven
D.Thirty
Answer: Option D
Under Indian Evidence Act, the provision of proof relating to digital
signatures is contained in:
A.Section 67A
B.Section 67B
C.Section 68A
D.Section 68B
Answer: Option A
22.
Under section 45 of Evidence
Act, the opinion of expert can be for
A.Identity of hand writing
B.Identity of finger
impression
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option C
23.
Chapter III of Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 is deals with-
A.The Relevancy of Facts
B.Facts which need not to be
proved
C.Oral evidence
D.Documentary evidence
Answer: Option B
24.
Leading question has been
defined under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under
A.Section 141
B.Section 142
C.Section 143
D.Section 145
Answer: Option A
25.
Which of the following
section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is based upon the well known principle
that 'possession is prima facie proof of ownership'?
A.110
B.112
C.114
D.115
E.None of the above
Answer: Option A
26.
Whether a party can prove
entries made by itself in a book of account?
A.No
B.Yes-with the permission of
court
C.Yes-with the consent of
adverse party
D.Yes
Answer: Option D
27.
In which of the following
cases a statement need not be in writing
A.For contradicting a witness
under Section 145, Evidence Act
B.A dying declaration
C.A statement used to refresh
the memory of a witness
D.A statement which can be
used under Section 162 Criminal Procedure Code
Answer: Option B
28.
Question of mode of proof is:
A.A question of law which can
be raised at any time
B.A question of procedure but
has to be raised at the first opportunity and stands waived if not raised at
the first opportunity
C.A question of procedure and
can be raised at any time
D.A mixed question of law and
fact
Answer: Option B
29.
Electronic record presented
for inspection of the court under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
A.Electronic evidence
B.Documentary evidence
C.Oral evidence
D.Modern evidence
Answer: Option B
30. In a suit
for partition, a Memorandum of Family Settlement is filed and on this basis the
partition suit is decreed, but even after disposal of the suit the original
Memorandum of Family Settlement remains in the file of the partition suit, then
in such situation whether in a suit for eviction by one of the original
co-owner of a tenant of a shop of the joint property which has fallen to the
share of that co-owner as per the decree passed on the Memorandum of Family
Settlement, can the certified copy of the Memorandum of Family Settlement be
filed and proved as a public document in the suit against the tenant?
A.No, it cannot be because
the original Memorandum of Family Settlement document which exists in the suit
for partition which is disposed of, is a private document and not public
document under Section 74 of the Evidence Act
B.Yes, if a certified copy is
obtained of the Memorandum of Family Settlement, and filed in the suit against
the tenant, as the certified copy being issued by a court, is a public document
C.Yes, certified copy
obtained from a court of the Memorandum of Family Settlement will be a public
document provided that the suit was filed and disposed of by a High Court and
not the District Court
D.Yes provided the certified
copy of the Memorandum of Family Settlement is sought to be proved by the
executants of the memorandum of settlement
Answer: Option A
The conduct of an eye witness is non-disclosing the incident to anybody for a number
of days is highly unnatural one and is sufficient to reject his testimony is
A.Not relevant
B.A ground of rejection of
testimony of eye witness
C.Not a ground of rejection
of testimony
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
32.
In criminal proceedings,
under which of the following situations, the fact that the accused person has
bad character, is relevant?
1. Where the character of the accused is in issue
2. When it affects damages
3. To rebut prior evidence of good character
4. Where the court is satisfied
Select the correct answer:
A.1 only
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1 and 3
Answer: Option D
33.
During which of the
following, leading questions can be asked?
A.Examination-in-chief
B.Cross-examination
C.Re-examination
D.All of the above
Answer: Option B
34.
The court may presume that
A.When a document creating an
obligation is in the hands of the obligor, the obligation has been discharged
B.Judicial and official acts
have not been regularly performed
C.A bill of exchange,
accepted or endorsed, was accepted or endorsed for deficient consideration
D.All these are incorrect
Answer: Option A
35.
Section 91 of Evidence Act
applies to
A.Transactions which under
the law must be in writing
B.Transactions which are
reduced into writing voluntarily
C.Both A and B
D.Only A and not B
Answer: Option C
36.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872, relevant fact must be
A.Legally relevant
B.Logically relevant
C.Legally or logically
relevant
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
37.
Which of the following is not
correct:
A.Cross-examination of a
witness on the basis of his Previous statement
B.Leading questions can be
asked in cross-examination
C.Witness summoned to produce
document can be cross-examined
D.With the permission of the
court, a witness can be cross-examined by the party calling it
Answer: Option C
38.
The test of ascertaining on
which side the burden of proof lies is contained in
A.Section 100 of Evidence Act
B.Section 101 of Evidence Act
C.Section 102 of Evidence Act
D.Section 103 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
39.
Choice the correct
propositions:
1. Evidence of fingerprint expert is substantive evidence.
2. Evidence of fingerprint expert can be used only to corroborate some items of
substantive evidence which are otherwise on record.
3. Evidence of fingerprint expert is not substantive evidence.
4. Evidence of fingerprint expert is admissible in all circumstances as expert
evidence.
A.1 and 2 are true
B.2 and 3 are true
C.3 and 4 are true
D.2 and 4 are true
Answer: Option D
40.
Under section 45 of Evidence
Act the opinion of expert can be on the question of
A.Indian law
B.Foreign law
C.Both A and B
D.Only A and not B
Answer: Option B
Which evidence is not admissible?
A.Evidence on affidavit
B.Oral evidence
C.Documentary evidence
D.Expert evidence
Answer: Option A
42.
Rules as to burden of proof
are:
A.Rebuttable presumptions of
law
B.Irrebuttable presumptions
of law
C.Rebuttable presumptions of
fact
D.Irrebuttable presumptions
of fact
Answer: Option A
43.
The Law of evidence under the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
A.Substantive Law
B.Procedural Law
C.Substantive and Procedural
Law
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
44.
Extra-judicial confession
means a confession made-
A.Before the Magistrate in
the court
B.To the police officer
C.To the doctor
D.None of the above
E.Both B and C
Answer: Option E
45.
Who among the following is
liable to explain the injuries to the accused in a murder trial?
A.The accused
B.The prosecution
C.The witnesses
D.None of these
Answer: Option D
46.
Mistake' referred to in
Proviso (1) to Section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act, refers to
A.Unilateral mistake only
B.Mutual mistake only
C.Unilateral and mutual
mistake
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
47.
Under section 15 of Evidence
Act, facts showing series of similar occurrences, involving the same person are
relevant
A.When it is uncertain
whether the act is intentional or accidental
B.When it is certain that the
act is with guilty knowledge
C.When it is certain that the
act is done innocently
D.Either B or C
Answer: Option A
48.
Necessity rule as to
admissibility of evidence is applicable when the maker of a statement
A.Is dead or has become
incapable of giving evidence
B.Is a person who can be
found but his attendance can not be procured without unreasonable delay or
expenses
C.Is a person who cannot be
found
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
49.
Which of the following
statements is not correct
A.In a rape trial, evidence
of previous good character of the accused is relevant
B.In a rape trial, evidence
of character of the victim is not relevant
C.In a rape trial, evidence
of previous sexual experience of the victim is relevant
D.None of these
Answer: Option C
50.
Which of the following is an
example of 'may presume'?
A.Presumption as to
electronic records
B.Presumption as to digital
signature certificate
C.Presumption as to
electronic messages
D.Presumption as to
electronic agreements
Answer: Option C
As the trial proceeds burden of proof under Section 101 of Indian Evidence Act-
A.Goes on shifting
B.May shift
C.Never shifts
D.Both May shift and Never
shifts
Answer: Option C
52.
Burden of proof under Section
101 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
A.Goes on shifting as the
trial proceeds
B.Never shifts
C.May shift
D.Both A and C are correct
Answer: Option B
53.
Under Section 18 of the
Indian Evidence Act, the admission of which of the following person is not
admissible against the other
A.One of the plaintiffs
B.One of the defendants
C.Agents of the parties
D.Statement of the third
party
Answer: Option D
54.
Expert opinion is relevant
under Section 45 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 when it is given upon a point of
A.Foreign law
B.Custom
C.Relationship
D.Digital signature
Answer: Option A
55.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872, for raising presumption in respect of an electronic record that
electronic signature on the record which purports to be that of any particular
person was so affixed by him the record shall be-
A.3 years old
B.6 years old
C.5 years old
D.10 years old
Answer: Option C
56.
Under Section 68 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a document registered by law to be attested can be
provided by calling
A.Both the attesting
witnesses
B.At least one of the
attesting witnesses
C.Any other persons
D.A legal heir of the
attesting witness
Answer: Option B
57.
The term
'Examination-in-chief' has been defined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
A.Section 137
B.Section 138
C.Section 139
D.Section 140
Answer: Option A
58.
Under Section 57 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a court cannot take judicial notice of:
A.Rule of the road, on land
or at sea
B.Matters of public history
for which resort to appropriate books is required
C.Uncontroversial notorious
facts
D.A newspaper report
Answer: Option D
59.
Which one of the following is
provided under Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Acceptance of an Evidence
B.Rejection of an Evidence
C.Evidence of deaf and dumb
D.Evidence of an accomplice
Answer: Option D
60.
Section 91 of the Indian
Evidence applies to
A.Only to the transactions
which under the law must be in writing
B.Only to the transactions
which are reduced into the writing
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
Which one of the following is not privileged communication?
A.Matrimonial communication
B.Paternal communication
C.Professional communication
D.Official communication
Answer: Option B
62.
Which one of the following is
not a competent witness to testify under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.Persons capable of
understanding the questions put to them by the court
B.Unchaste woman
C.Witness unable to speak
D.Idiot
Answer: Option D
63.
Under which section of
Evidence Act, a tenant of immovable property is estopped from denying a title
of the landlord to that property?
A.Section 115
B.Section 116
C.Section 117
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
64.
Evidence of terms of
contracts, grants and other dispositions of property reduced to form of
documents, covered under section
A.Section 91
B.Section 92
C.Section 93
D.Section 94 of Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
65.
The expression "facts in
issue" is used in which of the following sections:
A.Section 5 and Section 6
B.Section 7 and Section 8
C.Section 9 and Section 11
D.All of them
Answer: Option D
66.
The basic idea embedded in
Section 27 of Evidence Act is the doctrine of . . . . . . . .
A.Necessity
B.Confirmation by subsequent
events
C.Agency
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
67.
Which of the following
statements is/are correct?
Evidence under the Evidence Act means and includes
1. Oral evidence
2. All documents except electronic records
3. All documents including electronic records
Select the correct answer:
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Answer: Option D
68.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872 the statement of hostile witness
A.Is irrelevant
B.Can be acted upon
C.Cannot be acted upon
D.Has no evidentiary value
Answer: Option B
69.
In which one of the following
a dying declaration is admissible?
A.In criminal proceedings
only
B.In civil proceedings only
C.Both in civil and criminal
proceedings
D.In civil proceedings only
with the permission of the court
Answer: Option C
70.
The case of Sarat Chander Dey
v. Gopal Chander Laha, (1891) 19 LA 203 is related to which of the following
section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.Section 6
B.Section 115
C.Section 124
D.Section 45
Answer: Option B
Which statement is not correct?
A.Some facts are relevant but
not admissible
B.Some facts are admissible
but not relevant
C.All relevant facts are
admissible
D.All admissible facts are
not relevant
Answer: Option C
72.
Which of the following
section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with admission by person from whom
interest is derived?
A.Section 12
B.Section 16
C.Section 13
D.Section 18
Answer: Option D
73.
By which section of Indian
Evidence Act 1872, the Judge is empowered in order to discover or to obtain
proper proof of relevant facts, ask any question, in any from, at any time, of
any witness, or of the parties, about any fact relevant or irrelevant?
A.166
B.167
C.164
D.165
Answer: Option D
74.
A letter purporting to be
issued from the Chief Secretary to the Government of Bengal was signed by a
deputy secretary not in his official capacity, but for the Chief Secretary. The
Court-
A.Can draw a presumption
under section 79 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that the document is an
authorised document
B.Can draw a presumption
under section 81 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that the document is an
authorised document
C.Can draw a presumption
under section 83 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that the document is an
authorised document
D.Cannot draw a presumption
under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that the document is an
authorised document
Answer: Option D
75.
Section 75 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
A.Public documents
B.Private documents
C.Certified copies of public
documents
D.Proof of other official
documents
Answer: Option B
76.
Under which condition a Court
may take into consideration the confession of one accused against himself and
another person?
A.If they are tried jointly
for the same offence
B.If they are tried jointly
for different offences
C.If they are tried for the
same offence but not jointly
D.If they are tried for
different offences and not jointly
Answer: Option A
77.
Under the Evidence Act, fact
means
A.Factum probandum
B.Factum probans
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
78.
Which of the following
statement holds true for the section 21 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.It only applies to civil
cases
B.It only applies to criminal
cases
C.This section is subject to
section 24, 25 and 26 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D.The section does not apply
to the admissions made to strangers
Answer: Option C
79.
Assertion (A): Sections 91 and 92,
Evidence Act should be read together.
Reason
(R): These two Sections supplement each other.
A.Both A and R are true and R
is the correct explanation of A
B.Both A and R are true but R
is not the correct explanation of A
C.A is true but R is false
D.A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A
80.
Under proviso 4 to section 92
of Evidence Act, oral evidence is admissible in cases
A.Where the contract has been
written voluntarily and not required by laws to be so written
B.Where the law required the contract
to be in writing
C.Where the contract has been
registered under the law of registration of documents
D.All the above
Answer: Option A
Which of the following chapters of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
'witnesses'?
A.Chapter VI
B.Chapter VII
C.Chapter VIII
D.Chapter IX
Answer: Option D
82.
Where there are three
different dying declarations, Higher Court is
A.Not to uphold the
conviction awarded by lower court
B.To uphold the conviction
awarded by lower court
C.To go through the
circumstantial evidence to uphold the conviction awarded by lower court
D.To rely upon the versions
of witnesses to uphold the conviction awarded by lower court
Answer: Option A
83.
Confession caused by
inducement, threat or promise is contained in
A.Section 24 of Evidence Act
B.Section 25 of Evidence Act
C.Section 26 of Evidence Act
D.Section 27 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
84.
Where the handwriting of a
teacher is in question the opinion of his principal may be relevant under which
Section of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 47
B.Section 48
C.Section 49
D.Section 50
Answer: Option A
85.
Confession caused by
inducement, threat or promise, when irrelevant in criminal proceeding is
covered by
A.Section 24 of Evidence Act
B.Section 26 of Evidence Act
C.Section 21 of Evidence Act
D.Section 28 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
86.
Exclusion of evidence of oral
agreement is dealt under-
A.Section 91 of Indian
Evidence Act
B.Section 92 of Indian
Evidence Act
C.Section 93 of Indian
Evidence Act
D.Section 94 of Indian
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
87.
The Indian Evidence Act is
not applicable to:
A.Jammu and Kashmir
B.Jammu Kashmir and Nagaland
C.Jammu Kashmir, Nagaland and
Scheduled Tribal areas
D.All the above
Answer: Option A
88.
Which of the following would
not be relevant in evidence under section 8 of Indian Evidence Act?
A.Evidence of the existence
of a motive for the crime charged
B.Evidence of a statement
which accompanies some conduct
C.Evidence of a statement
which influences and affects the conduct of a person, whose conduct is
otherwise relevant
D.Evidence of a statement of
the act of robbery without making any complaint
Answer: Option D
89.
"In the matter of
kidnapping and rape, the evidence given by prosecutrix being illiterate and
rustic young woman, some contradictions and omission are natural as her
recollection memory, observance and narration of chain of events."
It has been held by Supreme Court in 2011 case.
A.Manoj Yadav v. Pushpa
B.State of Uttar Pradesh v.
Chhottay Lal
C.Madhu Verma v. Urmila Devi
D.Lakhan Lal v. State of
Bihar
Answer: Option B
90.
In civil cases, the fact that
the character of any person is such as is to affect the amount of damages which
he ought to receive is
A.Relevant
B.Irrelevant
C.Depend upon each and every
case
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
In which Section of Evidence Act, 1882 confession made to the police is not
admissible.
A.Section 25
B.Section 24
C.Section 32
D.Section 27
Answer: Option A
92.
Which one of the following statements
is correct?
Admission is acknowledging any right of liability under civil law, made
A.Orally before a judicial
authority
B.In writing before a notary
C.By conduct and document, as
well as orally, but not in electronic form
D.By conduct, orally, or in
writing or contained in electronic form
Answer: Option D
93.
Under which Section of the
Indian Evidence Act, order of examination (examination-in-chief, cross
examination and re-examination) has been provided?
A.Section 137
B.Section 138
C.Section 141
D.Section 144
Answer: Option B
94.
The constitutionality of
which Section of the Indian Evidence Act was challenged in "State of Uttar
Pradesh v. Deoman Upadhyaya" for the violation of Article 14 of the
Constitution?
A.Section 25
B.Section 26
C.Section 27
D.Section 28
Answer: Option C
95.
Which of the following
documents are not admissible in evidence
A.Documents improperly
procured
B.Documents procured by
illegal means
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option D
96.
Document' produced for the
inspection of the court includes-
1. A written document
2. A caricature
3. An electronic record
4. An inscription on stone
Select the correct answer:
A.1 and 4
B.1, 2 and 4
C.1, 2, 3 and 4
D.1, 2 and 3
Answer: Option C
97.
Under which of the following
provisions of the Evidence Act the word "forming part of the same
transaction" occurs?
A.Under Sec. 5
B.Under Sec. 6
C.Under Sec. 7
D.Under Sec. 8
Answer: Option B
98.
A confession made while in
police custody is admissible under section 26 of Evidence Act
A.If made in the presence of
a doctor
B.If made in the presence of
a captain of a vessel
C.If made in the presence of
a Magistrate
D.All the above
Answer: Option C
99.
Conclusive proof of
legitimacy' of a child born during the valid marriage is dealt under which
Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.Section 115
B.Section 114
C.Section 112
D.Section 113
Answer: Option C
100.
The conditions for dying
declaration are
A.It must be a written or
verbal statement
B.The statement must be
relate to the cause of death
C.The cause of death person
must be in question
D.All of above
Answer: Option D
Power of the Court to suo motu examine any person at any stage is under
A.Section
163 of the Indian Evidence Act
B.Section
164 of the Indian Evidence Act
C.Section
165 of the Indian Evidence Act
D.Section
167 of the Indian Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
2.
What
are the questions which are lawful in Cross-examination?
A.To
test his veracity
B.To
discover who he is
C.To
take his credit by injuring his character
D.All
of the above
Answer: Option D
3.
Court,
for the purpose of Indian Evidence Act, does not include?
A.Judge
B.Magistrate
C.Arbitrator
D.Person
legally authorized to take evidence
Answer: Option C
4.
Where
'A' is accused of the offence of rape and murder of a girl child. Which of the
tests can 'A' be subjected to without his consent for the purposes of
investigation?
A.Brain
Electrical Activation Profile Test
B.Narco-analysis
test
C.Polygraph
test
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option D
5.
The
right to cross-examine on an answer to court question is available:
A.To
the adverse party only
B.To
the party calling the witness only
C.To
either of the parties if the answer is adverse to either of the parties
D.Only
A and not B
Answer: Option C
6.
During
the course of trial of a rape case, a person present in Court causes a knife
injury to another person before the Court. The Judge before whom the incident
took place:
A.May
not be called in evidence
B.May
be called in evidence only under special order of a higher Court
C.May
be examined as a witness
D.May
be called in evidence, only if the trial of that incident is going on before a
higher Court
Answer: Option C
7.
In
which of the following instances, insulting words can form the basis of an
action for defamation?
A.Written
by a husband to his wife
B.Written
by a client to his lawyer
C.Written
in an inland letter
D.Written
in a post card
Answer: Option D
8.
Under
which section of the Evidence Act provisions for presumption as to Gazattes in
Electronic forms has been made?
A.Section
81A
B.Section
85A
C.Section
85B
D.Section
88A
Answer: Option A
9.
Presumption
of jurisdiction will be in favour of the plaintiff. The defendant who disputes
the fact has the burden of proof to prove the contrary. Is it rue?
A.Yes
B.No
C.A
higher court should decide the jurisdiction. The court whose jurisdiction is
questioned should not decide whether it has jurisdiction or not
D.None
of the above
Answer: Option A
10.
The
burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within the
General Exceptions in Indian Penal Code is
A.Upon
the prosecution
B.Upon
the Magistrate
C.Upon
none
D.Upon
the accused person
Answer: Option D
Which of the following section of Evidence Act recognize the principle that
"Hearsay evidence is no evidence"?
A.Section 60
B.Section 64
C.Section 91
D.Section 92
Answer: Option A
12.
Section 112 of Evidence Act
provides for presumption of . . . . . . . .
A.Life
B.Marriage
C.Death
D.Legitimacy
Answer: Option D
13. Section
112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is based on the principle that law favours
legitimacy rather than bastardity of children. It is conclusive presumption and
can be rebutted only on the ground of:
A.DNA testing
B.Non-access of parties
C.Psychological impotency
D.Adultery
Answer: Option B
14. Question
as to admissibility of evidence
A.Should be decided as they
arise
B.Should be reserved until
judgment
C.May be decided as they
arise or may be reserved until judgment
D.Either B or C
Answer: Option A
15. Admissibility
of contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions
of
A.Under Section 61 of Indian
Evidence Act
B.Under Section 65 of Indian
Evidence Act
C.Under Section 65B of Indian
Evidence Act
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
16. Burden to
prove of adverse possession is on
A.Court
B.Plaintiff
C.Defendant
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
17. Which
illustration of Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act is based upon the maxim,
'Ominia praesumuntur rite et solemniter esse acta'?
A.Illustration 'a'
B.Illustration 'd'
C.Illustration 'e'
D.Illustration 'g'
Answer: Option C
18. Which one
of the following under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not a kind of estoppel?
A.Estoppel by will
B.Estoppel by deed
C.Estoppel by conduct
D.Estoppel by record
Answer: Option A
19. Making the
fact in issue is:
A.It is the duty of parties
B.It is the duty of advocates
of parties
C.It is the duty of court
D.It is duty of Government
Council
Answer: Option C
20. C child
was born after dissolution of marriage between F and M. The legitimacy of child
C will be taken as conclusive proof only when child C was born with . . . . . .
. . days after dissolution.
A.280
B.290
C.295
D.300
Answer: Option A
21.Circumstantial
evidence must satisfy the following test:
A.The circumstances from
which an inference of guilt is to be drawn must be cogently and firmly
established
B.Those circumstances should
be of a definite tendency unerringly pointing towards the guilt of the accused
C.The circumstances taken
collectively should form a chain so complete that there is no escape from the
conclusion that within all human probability the crime was committed by the
accused
D.All of the above
Answer: Option A
22. FIR (First
information Report) is not a substantive evidence, it can be used during trial
A.To corroborate the
information
B.To contradict the
information
C.To corroborate and
contradict the information both
D.Neither to corroborate nor
to contradict the information
Answer: Option C
23. Section 63
- Secondary evidence means and includes
A.Certified copies given
under the provisions of the Act
B.Copies made from the
original by mechanical processes which in themselves insure the accuracy of the
copy, and copies compared with such copies
C.Copies made from or
compared with the original and Counterparts of documents as against the parties
who did not execute them
D.All of above
Answer: Option D
24. The
deciding factor under section 112 of Evidence Act is
A.The date of birth of the
child
B.The date of conception of
the child
C.The date of birth or the
date of conception depending on the facts and circumstances
D.Only B and not A
Answer: Option A
25. In a case
related to the abetment of suicide by a woman the provision of presumption is
available in Section . . . . . . . . of Evidence Act-
A.114
B.113A
C.113B
D.114A
Answer: Option B
26. In
relation to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which of the following statements is
not correct?
A.Court includes arbitrators
B.An inscription on a
metal-plate is a document
C.A fact is said to be not
proved when it is neither proved nor disproved
D.The state of a person's
health is a fact
Answer: Option A
27. In a
criminal case, the primary burden to prove a fact is upon:
A.Accused
B.Prosecution
C.Police
D.Court
Answer: Option B
28.
Which section of the Evidence
Act deals with accomplice?
A.Section 32
B.Section 135
C.Section 133
D.Section 141
Answer: Option C
29.
If a married woman is dies
within the period of . . . . . . . . from the date of marriage, it will be
considered as presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman.
A.15 years
B.5 years
C.7 years
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
30.
Section 113B, 'presumption as
to dowry death' was added to the Indian Evidence Act in
A.1986
B.1983
C.1961
D.1962
Answer: Option A
Admission can
be:
A.Formal only
B.Informal only
C.Either formal or informal
D.None of these
Answer: Option C
32.
The question is whether 'A'
murdered 'B' during the course of a struggle Marks on the ground produced by
the struggle at the place of occurrenceis relevant fact under which of the
following sections of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 6
B.Section 7
C.Section 8
D.Section 12
Answer: Option B
33.
Provisions regarding
confession made to a police officer is given in which section of the Indian
Evidence Act?
A.Section 24
B.Section 25
C.Section 26
D.Section 27
Answer: Option B
34.
Which of the following
Sections was not inserted in the Indian Evidence Act by the Information
Technology Act, 2000?
A.Section 22A
B.Section 67A
C.Section 81A
D.Section 114A
Answer: Option D
35.
A' accused of murder, alleges
that by grave and sudden provocation, he was deprived of the power of
self-control. 'B'. denies this fact:
A.The burden of proof must be
shared by both A and B
B.The burden of proof is on
'B'
C.The burden of proof is on
prosecution
D.The burden of proof is on
'A'
Answer: Option D
36.
Which one among the following
statements is not correct according to the provisions of the Indian Evidence
Act?
A.Where a document is
executed in several parts, each part is primary evidence of the document
B.Where a document is
executed in counterpart, each counterpart is primary evidence as against the
parties executing it
C.Where a document is
executed in counterpart, each counterpart is primary evidence for the parties
executing it
D.Where the document itself
is produced before the court for its inspection, it is primary evidence of the
document
Answer: Option C
37.
A husband or wife are
permitted to disclose any communication between them during marriage:
A.In civil proceedings
between the parties
B.In criminal proceedings
between the parties
C.In matrimonial proceedings
between the parties
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
38.
A is accused of murdering B.
The following facts are constructed in the case:
1. An hour before the murder, A took B in his car to a certain place
2. A alone returned home
3. A's cloth were found to be blood-stained
The evidence which takes into account the above mentioned facts is called
A.Circumstantial evidence
B.Direct evidence
C.Secondary evidence
D.Real evidence
Answer: Option A
39.Section 79
of Evidence Act contains
A.An irrebuttable presumption
of law
B.A rebuttable presumption of
law
C.A presumption of fact
D.No presumption either of
fact or law
Answer: Option B
40. In
criminal cases, which one of the following statements is correct?
A.The fact that the accused
person is of a good character is relevant
B.The fact that the accused
person is of a good character is not relevant
C.The fact that the accused
person has a bad character is relevant
D.The fact that the accused
person is of a dubious character is irrelevant if the evidence to the contrary
has been given
Answer: Option A
41.
In which celebrated judgment,
did the Hon'ble Supreme Court classified the witnesses into three categories
(i) wholly reliable, (ii) wholly unreliable, (iii) neither wholly reliable nor
wholly unreliable?
A.AIR 1957 SC 614, Vadivelu
Thevar v. State of Madras
B.AIR 1974 SC 275, Guli Chand
& Ors. v. State of Rajasthan
C.AIR 2012 SC 1357, Ramnaresh
& Ors. v. State of Chhattisgarh
D.(1994) 2 SCC 467, Bheru
Singh v. State of Rajasthan
Answer: Option A
42.
Entries in the books of
accounts regularly kept in the course of business are admissible under Section
34 of Evidence Act
A.If they by themselves
create a liability
B.If they by themselves do
not create a liability
C.Irrespective of whether
they themselves create a liability or not
D.Either A or B
Answer: Option C
43.
Section 132 of the Indian
Evidence Act does not apply to a statement made by a person during an
investigation under:
A.Section 159 Criminal
Procedure Code
B.Section 161 Criminal
Procedure Code
C.Section 163 Criminal
Procedure Code
D.Section 166 Criminal
Procedure Code
Answer: Option B
44.
Which the following is not a
public document?
A.Public records kept in act
state of any private documents
B.Judgement of Court
C.Arrest-Warrant
D.Will
Answer: Option D
45.
In joint trial, the
evidentiary value of confession of a co-accused affecting himself and others,
has been discussed by the Supreme Court in
A.Kashmira Singh v. State of
Madhya Pradesh
B.State of Uttar Pradesh v.
Dearman Upadhyay
C.Ram Bharose v. State of
Uttar Pradesh
D.Rameshwar v. State of
Rajasthan
Answer: Option A
46.
Which of the following is
called 'best evidence'?
A.Certificate copies issued
in accordance with law
B.Document which knows no
predecessor
C.Copies made from the
original by mechanical process
D.All of the above
Answer: Option B
47.
When can a leading question
be asked
A.Only in Examination in
Chief
B.In cross-examination
C.In re-examination
D.In all
Answer: Option B
48.
A reputation of a person is:
A.A fact
B.A subject
C.An opinion
D.An evidence
Answer: Option A
49.
Generally dying declarations
are admissible as evidence under
A.Section 20 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
B.Section 25 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
C.Section 32 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
D.Section 35 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
Answer: Option C
50.
A, who is unable to speak by
birth, gives his testimony by writing in open Court, Evidence so given is
treated under the Indian Evidence Act as
A.Documentary evidence
B.Oral evidence
C.Primary evidence
D.All of the above
Answer: Option B
Under The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, Section 17 to 31 applies to
A.Admissions
B.Confessions
C.Both Admissions and
Confessions
D.Opinion of third person
Answer: Option C
52.
What is not correct for the
admissibility of the 'dying declaration' under Section 32 Clause (1) of the
Indian Evidence Act?
A.The person making statement
must have died
B.Statement must have been
made as to cause of his death
C.It is not necessary that
cause of death must be in question
D.It is not necessary that
statement must have been made in expectation of death
Answer: Option C
53.
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
applies to all judicial proceedings in or before any Court, including
Courts-martial, but not to
A.Affidavits presented to any
Court or Officer, nor to proceedings before an arbitrator
B.Power of attorney presented
to any Court or Officer, nor to proceedings before an arbitrator
C.Only to high courts and
supreme court
D.Only to criminal courts
Answer: Option A
54.
For presumption of death
under Section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the person is shown to be
not heard for a period of:
A.Three years
B.Seven years
C.Twelve years
D.Thirty years
Answer: Option B
55.
The term 'Evidence' means and
includes
A.Oral evidence
B.Documentary evidence
C.Electronic records produced
for the inspection of the court
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
56.
A marriage certificate-
A.Is proof of a valid
marriage per se
B.Is a determining factor
regarding the validity of the marriage
C.Is of great evidentiary
value in family matters
D.All of the above
Answer: Option C
57.
Which one of the following
statements is correct?
"Hearsay evidence" become relevant
A.When it is ratified by
admission or confession
B.When it comes under the
ambit of section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
C.When it is mentioned in any
public document or is presumed by the court
D.In all of the categories
mentioned above
Answer: Option D
58.
The burden of proof in case
of 'Plea of Alibi' is
A.On the prosecution
B.On the accused
C.Investigation agency
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
59.
The stipulation that facts
which enable the court to determine the amount of damages are relevant is
incorporated in Section . . . . . . . . of Evidence Act;
A.12
B.10
C.8
D.11
Answer: Option A
60.
Which one of the following
statements is true?
A dying declaration to be admissible
A.Must be made before a
magistrate
B.Must be made before a
police officer
C.Must be made before a
doctor
D.May be made before a
magistrate, police officeror doctor
Answer: Option D
61.
Which of the following
statement is incorrect in the context of "Estoppel" as dealt in
Section 115 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
A.There must be a
representation by a person to another
B.The representation must be
in writing
C.The other person must have
acted upon such representation taking it as true
D.The other person should
have suffered some prejudice, detriment or disadvantage by acting upon or by
reason of such representation
E.None of these
Answer: Option B
62.
Public documents are
mentioned under which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 72
B.Section 73
C.Section 74
D.Section 75
Answer: Option C
63.
When a party proposes to give
a particular fact as evidence, Section 136 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
provides that
A.The Judge may ask about its
relevancy
B.The Judge shall ask about
its relevancy
C.The Judge may presume its
relevancy
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
64.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872 "Motive" becomes more relevant in a case based on
A.Direct evidence
B.Circumstantial evidence
C.Documentary evidence
D.Without any evidence
Answer: Option B
65.
Section 111 of the Evidence
Act speaks of such situations where one person stands in a position of . . . .
. . . . to the other person.
A.Active faith
B.Passive faith
C.Active confidence
D.Confidence
Answer: Option C
66.
No public officer shall be
compelled to disclose communications made to him in official confidence when he
considers that the public interests would suffer by the disclosure is
A.Privileged communication
B.Official communication
C.Private communication
D.Confidential communication
Answer: Option B
67.
Term 'admission' in The
Indian Evidence Act involves . . . . . . . .
A.Consent
B.Agreement
C.Submission
D.None of the above
Answer: Option D
68.
The evidence given by a dumb
witness through sign language recorded into writing shall be alan
A.Documentary evidence
B.Oral evidence
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
69.
Which one of the following is
not an exception to the doctrine of estoppel under Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.When the truth is known to
both the parties
B.On the question of law
C.On the question of fact
D.Against the law
Answer: Option C
70.
Secondary evidence of a
document means
A.Copies of that document
B.Oral account of the
contents of the documents
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option C
Which word has not been defined by Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.India
B.May presume
C.Court
D.Disproved
Answer: Option B
72.
Which one of the following
statements is correct?
A, who has taken vow of silence gives evidence in writing in an open court. His
evidence shall be deemed to be
A.Documentary evidence
B.Circumstantial evidence
C.Oral evidence
D.Secondary evidence
Answer: Option C
73.
This presumption that a
computer output shall be taken to have been produced by computer is contained
in
A.Section 65-A
B.Section 65-B(2)
C.Section 65-B(5)(c)
D.Section 67-A
Answer: Option C
74.
Oral admission as to contents
of electronic records are relevant when;
A.The party proposing to
prove them shows that he is entitled to give secondary evidence of the same
B.The genuineness of the
electronic record produced is in question
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
75.
Choose the correct option
under the Indian Evidence Act.
A.Judicial notice ⇔ Section 87
B.Private document ⇔ Section 75
C.Admission ⇔ Section 48
D.Accomplice ⇔ Section 132
Answer: Option B
76.
A dumb person is a competent
witness as provided under
A.Section 118 of the Evidence
Act
B.Section 119 of the Evidence
Act
C.Section 120 of the Evidence
Act
D.Section 121 of the Evidence
Act
Answer: Option B
77.
Under the Indian Evidence Act
which one of the following is correct?
A.A confession made to the
Police Officer is relevant and admissible completely
B.Wife can be compelled by
the Court in any suit or proceedings to disclose all communication made to her
by her husband
C.The Judge has power to ask
any questions to the parties, witnesses on any fact relevant to the case
D.Police officer can be
compelled to disclose the source of his information and the person who gave him
information about the commission of offence
Answer: Option C
78.
Circumstantial evidence is
considered weaker evidence as compared to direct evidence
A.Because it has 2 errors of
fallibility (i) of the fact from which inference is drawn being proved and (ii)
of the inference to be drawn from the fact proved
B.Because the inference in
circumstantial evidence is based upon a presumption
C.Because circumstances
sometimes may tell a lie
D.Because circumstances
evidence is based upon the process of deductive logic
Answer: Option A
79.
Appreciation of evidence is
a:
A.Question of fact
B.Question of law
C.Question of law and fact
D.All of the above
Answer: Option B
80.
Which one of the following
has not been mentioned in the definition of "Documents" as the means
by which any matter is expressed or described upon any substance;
A.Letters
B.Figures
C.Symbols
D.Marks
Answer: Option C
81.
When a document purporting to
be a power of attorney, duly authenticated as required by law is produced
A.The court can take it as conclusive
proof
B.The court may presume its
execution and authentication
C.The court shall presume its
execution and authentication
D.Nothing is required to be
proved
Answer: Option C
82.
Which of the following
sections of the lndian Evidence Act, 1872 states that the admissions can
operate as estoppels?
A.Section 28
B.Section 30
C.Section 31
D.Section 34
Answer: Option C
83.
The affidavit given to the
Court is
A.Not an evidence
B.An evidence
C.Merely a written statement
D.A proof
Answer: Option A
84.
Which of the following can be
considered in evidence in any suit or proceedings under Indian Evidence Act?
A.Only facts in issue
B.Only relevant facts
C.Facts in issue and relevant
facts
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
85.
Even a "student"
may be treated as an expert under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
It was laid down by the Supreme Court in
A.Bhoginbhai Hirbhai v. State
of Gujarat (1983)
B.Sankaria v. State of
Rajasthan (1978)
C.Kanpur University v. Samir
Gupta & Ors. (1983)
D.Punjab Singh v. State of
Haryana (1984)
Answer: Option C
86.
Opinion as to relationship of
marriage under section 50 of CPC
A.Is admissible in cases of
offences against marriage
B.Is admissible in
proceedings under Indian Divorce Act
C.Is admissible both in A and
B
D.Is neither admissible in
cases of offences against marriage nor in proceedings under Indian Divorce Act
Answer: Option D
87. Which one
of the following is not inclusive in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
for relevancy?
A.Intention
B.Motive
C.Preparation
D.Conduct
Answer: Option A
88. Section
114-A was introduced in the Indian Evidence Act after widespread protest
against which judgement?
A.Tukaram v. State of
Maharashtra
B.Moginbai v. State of
Gujarat
C.Harpal Singh Case
D.Pramod Mehta Case
Answer: Option A
89. "Knowledge
of STD booth from where accused persons talked with each other, is relevant for
Section 27 of the Evidence Act, 1872." It was laid down by the Supreme
Court in
A.R. M. Malkani v. State of
Maharashtra
B.State of Madhya Pradesh v.
Kirpa Ram, (2003) 12 SCC 175
C.S. C. Bahri v. State of
Bihar, AIR 1994 SC 2020
D.Abuthagir v. State, AIR
2009 SC 2797
Answer: Option D
90. Which
Section of the Indian Evidence Act is related with doctrine of 'Res ipsa
loquitor'?
A.Section 102
B.Section 104
C.Section 106
D.Section 108
Answer: Option C
91. The principle of . . . . . . . . is embodied in Section 6 of the Evidence
Act.
A.Estoppel
B.Res Gestae
C.Presumption
D.Falsus in uno falsus in
omnibus
Answer: Option B
92. The
previous sexual experience of a prosecutrix in a case of rape where the
question of consent is an issue:
A.Can be used to impeach the
credit worthiness of the prosecutrix, under Section 155 of the Indian Evidence
Act
B.Is irrelevant
C.Is relevant, only if the
accused is a person known to the prosecutrix
D.Is relevant to prove
consent
Answer: Option B
93. The
Kashmira Singh v. State of Madhya Pradesh is a leading case on:
A.Dying declaration
B.Admission
C.Confession to police
officer
D.Confession of a co-accused
Answer: Option D
94. Leading
question can be asked as a matter of right
A.During examination-in-chief
B.During cross-examination
C.During re-examination
D.Under no circumstances
whatsoever
Answer: Option B
95. The
opinion of examiner of electronic evidence is a relevant fact under which
provision of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.45A
B.47A
C.65A
D.65B
96. Which of
the following statements is correct for admissibility in evidence under Section
32(1) of Andian Evidence Act?
A.Dying declaration must be
in writing
B.Dying declaration must be
made under the expectation of death
C.Dying declaration may be
verbal
D.Dying declaration must be
made to a Magistrate
Answer: Option C
97. A marriage
was solemnized in a general customary form. What is the rule for proving that
it is legal wedlock?
A.The custom shall be proved
by evidence
B.The court takes judicial
notice of the custom
C.The court shall evaluate
the effect of custom on general public
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
98. Indian
Evidence Act: An accused informed his lawyer that he has committed the offence
and wishes to defend him. In this circumstance
A.The lawyer is duty bound to
inform the police about the information
B.The lawyer is duty bound to
inform the fact to the Magistrate
C.The lawyer is not bound to
disclose the communication which took place between him and the accused
D.The criminal court can
compel the lawyer to disclose the fact
Answer: Option C
99. How many
minimum numbers of witnesses are required to proof any fact?
A.No particular number of
witnesses is required for the proof of any fact
B.3
C.2
D.4
Answer: Option A
100. What does
the term 'existence of State of mind' denotes under Section 14 of the Indian
Evidence Act?
A.Intention
B.Negligence
C.Good faith
D.All of these
Answer: Option D
1. Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act was added in
A.Year
1982
B.Year
1983
C.Year
1988
D.Year
1980
Answer: Option B
2. Which one of the following is correctly matched under the
Indian Evidence Act?
A.Burden
of Proof ⇔
Section 101
B.Dowry
Death ⇔
Section 122
C.Dumb
witness ⇔
Section 107
D.Accomplice
⇔ Section 119
Answer: Option A
3. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, the confession
before the Magistrate is relevant?
A.Section
24
B.Section
25
C.Section
26
D.Section
27
Answer: Option C
4. In Evidence Act, leading questions can be asked during
A.Cross
examination
B.Examination
in chief
C.Re-examination
D.All
the above
Answer: Option A
5. Which of the following descriptions is correct under section
145 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.A
witness may be crossed examined as to previous statements made by him in
writing or reduced into writing, and relevant to matters in question, without
such writing being shown to him, or being proved; even if it is intended to
contradict him by the writing, his attention need not, before the writing can
be proved, be called to those parts of it which are to be used for the purpose
of contradicting him
B.A
witness may be crossed examined as to previous statements made by him in
writing or reduced into writing, and relevant to matters in question, without
such writing being shown to him, or being proved; but, if it is intended to
contradict him by the writing, his attention must, before the writing can be
proved, be called to those parts of it which are to be used for the purpose of
contradicting him
C.A
witness may be crossed examined as to previous statements made by him in
writing or reduced into writing, and relevant to matters in question, without
such writing being shown to him, or being proved; but, if it is intended to
contradict him by the writing, his attention must, before the writing can be
proved, be called to such new materials which are to be used for the purpose of
contradicting him
D.A
witness may be crossed examined as to previous statements made by him in
writing or reduced into writing, even if not relevant matters in question,
without such writing being shown to him, or being proved for any purpose
Answer: Option B
6. Relevancy is
A.Question
of law and can be raised at any time
B.Question
of law but can be raised at the first opportunity
C.Question
of law which can be waived
D.Question
of procedure which can be waived
Answer: Option A
7. Indian Evidence Act: Presumption as to Electronic records and
electronic Signature-
A.Section
85-B of Evidence Act
B.Section
85-C of Evidence Act
C.Section
88-A of Evidence Act
D.Section
85-A of Evidence Act
Answer: Option A
8.What is the effect of opinion of the experts upon the court?
A.Binding
on the judge
B.Only
advisory in nature
C.The
judge can form an opinion contrary to that of expert
D.Both
B and C
E.None
of the above
Answer: Option D
9.Under the Indian Evidence Act, which of the following is not a
court
A.Persons
legally authorised to take evidence
B.Judges
C.Magistrates
D.Arbitrators
Answer: Option D
10. A fact is said to be . . . . . . . . when, after considering
the matters before it, the Court either believes that it does not exist, or
considers its non existence so probable that a prudent man ought, under the
circumstances of the particular case, to act upon the supposition that it does
not exist.
A.Proved
B.Disproved
C.Not
proved
D.Approved
11. Which one
of the following is a presumption under Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872?
A.Abetment of suicide by a
married woman
B.Legitimacy of a child
C.Dowry death
D.Absence of consent in
certain prosecution for rape
Answer: Option B
12. According
to the Indian Evidence Act, which one among the following statements is not
correct?
A.When it is shown that a
person was alive within thirty years, the burden of proving that he is dead is
on the person who affirms it
B.When it is shown that a
person was not heard of for seven years by those who would naturally have heard
of him if he had been alive, the burden of proving that he is alive is on the
person who affirms it
C.When it is shown that a
person is in possession of anything, the burden of proving that he is not the
owner is on the person who affirms that he is not the owner
D.When it is shown that one
person stands to the other in a position of active confidence, the burden of
proving the good faith of a transaction between them is on the party that
reposed confidence in the other
Answer: Option D
13. Which of
the following is not a "document" as per provisions of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872?
A.A map
B.Words lithographed
C.Inscription on a stone
D.A piece of metal with
inscription that was used to cause fatal injury
Answer: Option D
14. A is tired
for a riot and is proved to have marched at the head of a mob. Applying Section
9, Indian Evidence Act:
A.The cries of the mob are
irrelevant as it does not explain the nature of the transaction
B.The cries of the mob are
relevant as explanatory of the nature of the transaction
C.Either A or B
D.None of them
Answer: Option B
15.
Section 134 of the Evidence
Act provides a set number of witnesses in a case as a requirement of proof
A.None
B.One
C.Minimum two
D.Two alone
Answer: Option A
16.
In a case where a doctor
commits rape on a woman of 30 years of age under his treatment and the woman
says that she did not consent, the court:
A.Will need proof
B.Shall presume that she did
not consent
C.May need corroboration
D.May presume or may not
presume her consent
Answer: Option B
17.
In relation to Relevancy of
Character in civil cases, which of the following is not correct:
A.It is not at all relevant
B.It is relevant when it
affects award of damage
C.When character is itself an
issue
D.When it appears from the
fact otherwise relevant
Answer: Option A
18.
The principle of 'res
judicata' is provided in which of the following section of the Indian Evidence
Act?
A.Section 140
B.Section 40
C.Section 160
D.Section 164
Answer: Option B
19.
Which one of the following
statements is not a fact in issue under the Evidence Act?
1. The existence of any right which is asserted or denied by the parties.
2. The existence of any disability asserted or denied by the parties.
3. The existence of a right admitted by the parties.
Select the correct answer:
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.None of the above
Answer: Option D
20.
Assertion (A): A dying declaration is
admissible in evidence.
Reason
(R): Its admissibility is founded upon the principle of
necessity
A.Both A and R are true and R
is the correct explanation of A
B.Both A and R are true, but
R is not the correct explanation of A
C.A is true but R is false
D.A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A
1.
Admission to be relevant
A.Must be made to the party
concerned and not to a stranger
B.Must be made to a stranger
C.It is immaterial as to whom
admission is made and an admission made to a stranger is relevant
D.It is immaterial to whom
the admission is made but must be made to someone intimately connected &
not a stranger
Answer: Option C
22.
Proposition of the Law of
Evidence is that
1. Proceedings of Legislature may be proved by the records certified by a
member present in the proceedings.
2. Acts of the Central Government may be proved by the records of the
department, certified by heads of the departments.
3. Acts of the state may be proved by the document purporting to be printed by
the order of such Government.
4. Acts of the State Government may be proved by records of the department
certified by the head of the corresponding department of the Central
Government.
A.1 and 2 are not true
B.2 and 3 are not true
C.3 and 4 are not true
D.1 and 4 are not true
Answer: Option D
23.
The facts, though not in
issue, are so connected with fact in issue, as to form part of a same
transaction are-
A.Relevant under the rule of
Res Gestae, Section 6
B.Not relevant
C.Hearsay evidence
D.Primary evidence
Answer: Option A
24.
In Evidence Act confession is
defined under
A.Section 19
B.Section 20
C.Section 21
D.None of these
Answer: Option D
25.
Which of the following could
be proved as dying declaration after the death of a person?
A.FIR (First information
Report) lodged by the person (deceased)
B.Statement of the person
(deceased) recorded u/s 161 Criminal Procedure Code
C.Statement of the person
(deceased) recorded by the executive Magistrate
D.All of these
Answer: Option D
26.
Oral evidence must be
A.Direct
B.Indirect
C.Circumstantial
D.All of the above
Answer: Option A
27.
'Res Gestae' literally means;
A.Things done
B.Things spoken
C.Same transaction
D.Things then
Answer: Option C
28.
Secondary evidence of a
document is admissible in evidence as a substitute for . . . . . . . .
A.Inadmissible primary
evidence under certain circumstances
B.Admissible primary evidence
C.Both A and B
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
29.
Right to cross-examination of
a witness has:
A.The party who calls him
B.Adverse Party
C.Court
D.None of these three
Answer: Option B
30.
A is accused of defaming B by
publishing an imputation intended to harm the reputation of B. The fact of
previous publication by A representing B, showing ill will on A's part towards
'B' is relevant, because
A.It proves the preparation
of harming A's reputation
B.It is necessary to explain
fact in issue
C.It proves intention to harm
B's reputation
D.It explains the previous
conduct of A
Answer: Option D
Assertion
(A): Extra-judicial confession, if voluntary, can be
relied upon with other evidence.
Reason
(R): Extra-judicial confession is a weak piece of evidence
A.Both A and R are true and R
is the correct explanation of A
B.Both A and R are true, but
R is not a correct explanation of A
C.A is true but R is false
D.A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A
32.
Which facts under the
Evidence Act need not be proved?
A.Those which are' deemed to
have been admitted
B.Those which are judicially
noticeable
C.Those which are actually
admitted
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
33.
Leading questions can be
asked:
1. In cross-examination
2. On matters which are undisputed
3. In re-examination
Select the correct answer:
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Answer: Option C
34.
Under section 118 of the
Indian Evidence Act, a person is a competent witness if he or she-
A.Is a major
B.Is not lunatic
C.Is not of extreme old age
D.Is capable of understanding
questions put to him and giving rational answers irrespective of age
Answer: Option D
35.
Which of the following
statement is correct?
A.Section 34 is only a rule
of evidence
B.Section 34 create a
substantive offence
C.To commit offence under
section 34, there is a need of alteast 5 person
D.Section 34 create
substantive evidence
Answer: Option A
36.
The ensure fairness and
accuracy in a Test Identification Parade, the requirement is
A.Parading persons of same
social status
B.Parading persons of same or
similar physical appearance along with the suspect
C.Parading be done in
presence of all the witnesses simultaneously
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
37.
Which of the following pairs
is not correctly matched?
A.Relevancy of statements as
to law contained in law books ⇔ Section 38,
Evidence Act
B.Relevancy of statements in
maps, charts, etc. ⇔ Section 35,
Evidence Act
C.Relevancy of certain
evidence for proving in subsequent proceeding the truth of facts therein stated
⇔ Section 33, Evidence Act
D.Relevancy of statement as
to facts of public nature ⇔ Section 37,
Evidence Act
Answer: Option B
38.
Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer:
|
List
I |
List
II |
|
a. Same transaction |
1. Section 17 of the Indian
Evidence Act |
|
b. Occasion |
2. Section 6 of the Indian
Evidence Act |
|
c. Motive |
3. Section 7 of the Indian
Evidence Act |
|
d. Admission |
4. Section 8 of the Indian
Evidence Act |
A.a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B.a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
C.a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
D.a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
Answer: Option C
39.
The examination of a witness,
subsequent to the cross examination by the party who called him shall be called
A.Examination in Chief
Re-Examination
B.Additional
Cross-Examination
C.Re-Cross Examination
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
40.
Which of the following
statements is correct?
A.A dying declaration
recorded by a Magistrate not empowered under section 164 Criminal Procedure
Code cannot be proved by the oral evidence of the Magistrate
B.The credit of the declarant
cannot be impeached
C.A dying declaration is
substantive evidence
D.If the declarant is not
examined although alive, his declaration is admissible
Answer: Option C
Under which provision a witness can refresh his memory:
A.U/s 145 of Indian Evidence
Act
B.U/s 159 of Indian Evidence
Act
C.U/s 165 of Indian Evidence
Act
D.U/s 157 of Indian Evidence
Act
Answer: Option B
42.
Which section of Indian
Evidence Act provides that evidence shall be weighted not counted
A.Section 132
B.Section 134
C.Section 130
D.Section 131
Answer: Option B
43.
The principle of
"presumption of survivorship", has been incorporated in the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 under
A.Section 106
B.Section 107
C.Section 108
D.Section 109
Answer: Option B
44.
Confessional statements are
made by the conspirators after they were arrested, implicating other co-accused
as co-conspirators. As regards admissibility of the statement which one of the
following is correct?
A.The statement is admissible
under Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act
B.The statement is hit by Article
20(2) of the Indian Constitution and hence inadmissible
C.The statement is
inadmissible because common intention was no longer in existence as held in the
Parliament attack case
D.The statement is admissible
under Article 19(a) of the Indian Constitution
Answer: Option C
45.
About six months before he
was murdered the deceased wrote a letter to S. P., Jabalpur asking for
protection and stating that he apprehended injury from 'A' and was in fear of
his life. The letter is admissible under Section-
A.5
B.6
C.8
D.32
Answer: Option D
46.
A' sues 'B' for a land of
'which 'B' is . in possession, and which, as 'A' asserts, was left to 'A' by
the will of 'C', B's father. If no evidence were given on either side, 'B'
would be entitled to retain his possession. Therefore the burden of proof is on
A.A'
B.B'
C.A' and 'B'
D.Neither on 'A' nor on 'B
Answer: Option A
47.
The term "Court",
as defined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, does not include
A.Presiding officer of a
Labour Court
B.Tahsildar
C.Arbitrator
D.Commissioner appointed by a
Civil Court
Answer: Option C
48.
Leading question is that
question which:
A.Clarifies the question
B.Is asked in
examination-in-chief
C.Suggests answer
D.Cannot be asked by his own
witness at all
Answer: Option C
49.
Under which section of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872, "The opinion of examiner of electronic evidence
is a relevant fact".
A.Section 45A
B.Section 22A
C.Section 65B
D.Section 65A
Answer: Option A
50.
Under Section 118 of Indian
Evidence Act, who amongst the following is not competent witness?
A.Child
B.Accused
C.Lunatic
D.All of these
Answer: Option C
Under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, 'shall presume' means:
A.Presumption of law as well
as irrebuttable presumption
B.Presumption of law as well
as rebuttable presumption
C.Presumption of fact as well
as irrebuttable presumption
D.Presumption of fact as well
as rebuttable presumption
Answer: Option B
52.
Legitimacy of a child bom
during the continuance of a valid marriage or within 280 days after its
dissolution, mother remaining unmarried under Section 112 of the Evidence Act,
is
A.Irrebuttable presumption
B.Rebuttable presumption
C.Conclusive proof
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
53.
Which of the following
qualities to be treated as "Fact" within the meaning assigned to it
under the Evidence Act?
A.That a man heard or saw
something
B.That a man holds a certain
opinion
C.That a man acts in good
faith
D.All of these
Answer: Option D
54.
An approver's evidence:
1. Must be reliable.
2. Must be corroborated.
3. Must be reliable and preferably corroborated.
4. Is not admissible.
Select the correct answer:
A.1 and 4
B.1 and 3
C.3 and 2
D.2 and 4
Answer: Option B
55.
Opinion of an expert under
Section 45 of Evidence Act
A.Is a conclusive proof
B.Is not a conclusive proof
C.Is supportive and
corroborative in nature
D.Is not admissible
Answer: Option C
56.
Under Section 118 who amongst
the following are competent witnesses:
A.Child
B.Accused
C.Lunatic
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
57.
. . . . . . . . section of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act,
2013.
A.Section 53
B.Section 53 A
C.Section 119
D.Section 119A
Answer: Option B
58.
Which of the following
statements hold true for a retracted confession?
A.It cannot be used as
evidence
B.It can be acted upon only
if substantially corroborated by independent circumstances
C.Cannot be disregarded even
if proved to be obtained under duress
D.None of these
Answer: Option B
59.
Section 23 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
A.Relevance of admissions in
civil cases
B.Relevance of oral
admissions as to contents of documents
C.Relevance of oral
admissions as to contents of electronic documents
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
60.
When a party refuses to
produce a document which he had noticed to produce-
A.He cannot use the document
as evidence without the consent of opposite party or the order of the court
B.Objection of opposite party
is worthless
C.Order of court not
necessary
D.Document will be deemed to
be an admitted document
Answer: Option A
.
In criminal proceedings the
burden of proof lies:
A.On persecution to prove the
guilt of accused beyond reasonable doubt
B.On accused to prove his
innocence
C.On both the parties
D.Depends on the facts of
each case
Answer: Option A
62.
Which statements are
Admission?
A.Which is in oral form
B.Which is in documentary
C.Which is contained in
electronic form
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
63.
Several sets of facts, which
are connected with the same transaction(s) in a particular mode, are relevant
under
A.Section 6 of the Evidence
Act
B.Section 7 of the Evidence
Act
C.Section 8 of the Evidence
Act
D.Section 9 of the Evidence
Act
Answer: Option A
64.
In Criminal Cases, previous
good character of the accused is
A.Irrelevant
B.Relevant
C.Inadmissible
D.Conclusive proof of
innocence
Answer: Option B
65.
Which of the following
section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with presumption as to certified
copies of foreign judicial records?
A.Section 86
B.Section 16
C.Section 13
D.Section 18
Answer: Option A
66.
The circumstances under which
the secondary evidence is admissible have been enumerated in
A.Section 63 of Evidence Act
B.Section 64 of Evidence Act
C.Section 65 of Evidence Act
D.Section 66 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option C
67.
A, a sculptor, agrees to sell
to B, "all my mods." A has both models and modelling tools. Applying
Section 98, Indian Evidence Act:
A.Evidence cannot be given to
show which he meant to sell
B.Evidence needed not be
given to show which he meant to sell
C.Evidence may be given to
show which he meant to sell
D.None of them
Answer: Option C
68.
Which of the following
section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with questions lawful in
cross-examination?
A.Section 139
B.Section 166
C.Section 140
D.Section 146
Answer: Option D
69.
The question is, whether 'A'
was ravished and thereafter murdered?
The fact that, without making a complaint, she said that she had been ravished
A.Is relevant as a conduct
B.Is relevant as a
substantive evidence
C.Is relevant as a secondary
evidence
D.May be relevant under
Section 32(1) or 157 of Evidence Act
Answer: Option D
70.
Identification proceedings'
are provided under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 7
B.Section 8
C.Section 11
D.Section 9
Answer: Option D
71.
Privilege in respect of
judges and magistrates under section 121 of Evidence Act relates to
A.Questions which a witness
cannot be compelled to answer
B.Question which a witness
cannot be permitted to answer
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option D
72.
Which of the following is
correctly matched according to Indian Evidence Act, 1872
A.Refreshing memory ⇔ Section 158
B.Identification parade ⇔ Section 10
C.Admission ⇔ Section 24
D.None of the above
Answer: Option D
73.
Which of the following
evidence is generally not admissible in court of law?
A.Direct evidence
B.Hearsay evidence
C.Circumstantial evidence
D.Oral evidence
Answer: Option B
74.
Under Section 57(1) of the
Evidence Act, the court shall take judicial notice of-
A.All laws in force in India
B.All laws including foreign
laws
C.All Indian and Asian laws
D.All Indian and British laws
up to 1950
Answer: Option A
75.
Several classes of facts,
which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode, are relevant
A.Under section 6 of Evidence
Act
B.Under section 7 of Evidence
Act
C.Under section 8 of Evidence
Act
D.Under section 9 of Evidence
Act
Answer: Option B
76.
A is accused of a crime.
Applying Section 8, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following facts can be
relevant?
A.The facts that, either
before or at the time of, or after the alleged crime, A provided evidence which
would tend to give to the facts of the case an appearance favorable to himself
B.That he destroyed or
concealed evidence, or prevented the presence or procured the absence of
persons who might have been witnesses
C.That he suborned persons to
give false evidence respecting it
D.All of them
Answer: Option D
77.
Falsus in uno, falsus in omni
bus is
A.A rule of evidence
B.A rule of criminal law
C.A rule of evidence in
criminal trial
D.Not a rule of evidence in
criminal trial
Answer: Option D
78.
Under Indian Evidence Act,
1872, the Rule of "Res gestae" is applicable in
A.Civil cases only
B.Criminal cases only
C.Civil as well as Criminal
cases
D.Not applicable in any case
Answer: Option C
79.
What does Section 113-B of
Evidence Act deal with?
A.Oral evidence
B.Abetment of suicide
C.Dowry death
D.Legitimacy of child
Answer: Option C
80.
"Relationship is not a
factor to affect credibility of a witness" held by the Supreme Court in
A.S. Sudershan Reddy v. State
of Andhra Pradesh, AIR 2006 SC 2716
B.Syed Ibrahim v. State of
Andhra Pradesh, AIR 2004 SC 2596
C.Renuka Bai v. State of
Maharashtra, AIR 2006 SC 3056
D.Minu Kumari v. State of
Bihar, AIR 2006 SC 130
Answer: Option A
Presumption
A.Is an evidence
B.Is a proof
C.Shows on whom the burden of
proof lies
D.All the above
Answer: Option C
82.
Under which Section of the
Indian Evidence Act admissibility of Evidence shall be decided by the Judge?
A.Section 132
B.Section 136
C.Section 138
D.Section 140
Answer: Option B
83.
Which of the following is not
relevant under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Intention
B.Occasion
C.Preparation
D.Previous conduct
Answer: Option B
84.
Opinion of experts is
relevant under-
A.Section 45 of Evidence Act
B.Section 46 of Evidence Act
C.Both the above
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A
85.
In case a child is born
within 280 days of dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried the
presumption of legitimacy of child under section 112 of Evidence Act arises:
A.If the father is alive on
the day the child is born
B.If the father is not alive
on the day the child is born
C.Irrespective of whether the
father is alive or dead on the day the child is born
D.Either A or B
Answer: Option C
86.
B' has been robbed and
murdered. Soon after, the stolen goods are found with 'A'. In these
circumstances, what may/may not be presumed?
A.The court may presume that
'A' committed the robbery of 'B', but not his murder
B.The court may presume that
'A' committed murder of 'B', but not robbery
C.The court may presume that
'A' committed both robbery and murder of 'B'
D.Mere recovery of the stolen
articles from 'A' would not justify the court in presuming that 'A' committed
either the robbery or the murder of 'B'
Answer: Option C
87.
Which of the following
section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the burden of proving fact to be
proved to make evidence admissible?
A.Section 104
B.Section 101
C.Section 102
D.Section 105
Answer: Option A
88.
Documents in respect of which
privilege has been provided under Section 123 of the Indian Evidence Act
A.Is a published official
record
B.Is an unpublished official
record
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
89.
Indian Evidence Act consists
of
A.11 Chapters 167 Sections
B.11 Chapters 2 Schedules
C.11 Chapters 197 Sections
D.11 Chapters 3 Schedules
Answer: Option A
90.
Which of the following
statements is/are not true?
1. An accomplice is a competent witness against an accused person.
2. Conviction on the testimony of an accomplice is legal.
3. Conviction on the testimony of an accomplice is legal only if it is
corroborated.
Select the correct answer:
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2
C.3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Answer: Option C
Section 106 of Evidence Act is applicable
A.To such matters of defence
which are supposed to be especially within the knowledge of the defendant
B.To such matters which are
capable of being known to the persons other than the defendant
C.Both A and B
D.Neither A nor B
Answer: Option A
92.
An accomplice is
A.Not a competent witness
against an accused
B.A competent witness against
an accused
C.Cannot be a competent
witness against an accused
D.Either A or C
Answer: Option B
93.
Who is prevented from being
testified under section 118 of Indian Evidence Act
A.A lunatic who cannot
understand the questions put to him
B.Extreme old age person who
cannot give rational answer to the questions
C.A tender age person who
cannot give rational answer to the questions
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
94.
Which one of the following is
not the secondary evidence?
A.Copies made from the
original by mechanical processes which in themselves ensure the accuracy of the
copy, and copies compared with such copies
B.Document itself produced
for the inspection of the Court
C.Copies made from or
compared with the original
D.Oral accounts of the
contents of a document given by some person who has himself seen it
Answer: Option B
95.
The question between 'A' and
'B' is, whether a certain deed is or is not forged. 'A' affirms that it is
genuine, 'B' that it is forged
A.A' may prove a statement by
'B' that the deed is genuine, and 'B' may prove a statement by 'A' that the
deed is forged
B.A' may prove a statement by
'B' that the deed is forged, and 'B' may prove a statement by 'A' that the deed
is genuine
C.A' may prove a statement by
himself that the deed is genuine
D.B' may prove a statement by
himself that the deed is forged
Answer: Option A
96.
Estoppel can be:
A.By silence
B.By negligence
C.By election
D.All the above
Answer: Option D
97.
"Fact" under
Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act means:
A.The truth as proved in the
court of law with the help of witnesses
B.Facts as narrated by the
client to the lawyer
C.Belief of a person in the
existence of certain things
D.Anything state of things,
or relation of things, capable of being perceived by the senses
Answer: Option D
98.
When court is to form an
opinion regarding electronic signature then opinion of certifying officer who
issued electronic signature is
A.Not admissible in Evidence
B.Is relevant
C.Not relevant
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B
99.
Which one of the following is
primary evidence?
A.Copies made from the
original
B.Document produced for the
inspection of the court
C.Certified copies of a
document
D.Photostat copies of a
document
Answer: Option B
100.
Relevancy of expert evidence
for the purpose of Evidence Act is contained in
A.Sections 10 to 20
B.Sections 35 to 40
C.Sections 45 to 48
D.Sections 59 and 60
Answer: Option C
Which section of the Indian Evidence Act was amended by the Criminal law
(Amendment) Act, 2005?
A.Section 90A
B.Section 32
C.Section 118
D.Section 154
2.
Answer: Option
D
Under which one of the following Section of the Indian Evidence
Act, a witness under examination gets the rights to refresh his memory ?
A.Section 158
B.Section 159
C.Section 160
D.Section 162
3.
Answer: Option
B
Secondary evidence of the contents of a document is not admissible
when
A.The original is of a nature as not to be easily movable
B.The original has been lost
C.The original is public document
D.The original has been found to be inadmissible
4.
Answer: Option
D
From presumption an inference may be drawn which may be:
A.Affirmative only
B.Disaffirmative only
C.Affirmative or disaffirmative
D.None of these
5.
Answer: Option
C
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding dumb
witnesses?
A.A dumb witness may give his evidence by writing in open court
B.A dumb witness may give his evidence by signs in open court
C.Evidence given by a dumb witness in writing before the court
shall be deemed to be documentary evidence
D.A dumb witness may give evidence in any manner which can make it
intelligible
6.
Answer: Option
C
Section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act refers to:
A.Res gestae
B.Estoppels
C.Res judicata
D.None of these
7.
Answer: Option
B
In criminal cases under Section 54, Indian Evidence Act to prove
that the defendant committed the crime charged, evidence may not be given that
he:
A.Bore a bad reputation in the community
B.Has a disposition to commit crime of that kind
C.Had no other occasions committed particular acts of the same
class evincing such disposition
D.All of them
8.
Answer: Option
D
An accused in Police custody confesses to a Police Officer, which
results in discovery of the knife. The evidence admissible under
A.Section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
B.Section 27 of Indian Evidence Act
C.Section 32 of Indian Evidence Act
D.None of the above
Answer: Option
B
9.
Facts which are inconsistent with any fact in issue are relevant' is basis of:
A.Plea of 'alibi'
B.Principle of 'res-gestae'
C.Nihil ad rem'
Answer: Option
A
10.
In which of the following secondary evidence relating to a
document cannot be given?
A.When the original document shown to be in possession of the
person against whom the document is sought to be proved
B.When the original document is in possession of the person who
wants to prove it
C.When the original document is lost without any default or
negligence on the part of the person who wants to prove it
D.When the original document is of such nature which cannot be
easily moved
Answer: Option B
11. The object of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 as set out in the preamble is:
A.To define and amend the law of evidence
B.To consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
C.To highlight define and consolidate the law of evidence
D.To highlight consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
12.
Answer: Option
B
According to Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, any
question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to
receive, is called a
A.Answerable question
B.Convenient question
C.Suggestive question
D.Leading question
13.
Answer: Option
D
Cross-examination of a witness:
A.Must relate to relevant facts and has to be confined to what the
witness testified in examination-in-chief
B.Must relate to relevant facts but need not be confined to what
the witness testified in examination-in-chief
C.May not relate to relevant facts but must relate to what the
witness testified in examination-in-chief
D.May not relate to relevant facts and may not be confined to what
the witness testified in examination-in-chief
14.
Answer: Option
B
Under the Provisions of the Indian Evidence Act
A.Admissions and confessions have the same meaning
B.Admissions and confessions have the different meaning
C.Admissions are a matter in a criminal trial
D.Confessions are a matter in a civil trial
15.
Answer: Option
B
Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act creates presumption as to
documents that are . . . . . . . . . years old.
A.5
B.30
C.7
D.12
16.
Answer: Option
B
Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act Provides that the
improper admission or rejection of evidence shall not be ground of itself for a
new trial?
A.Section 161
B.Section 167
C.Section 166
D.Section 165
17.
Answer: Option
B
Which of the following is incorrect under the Evidence Act?
A.In a case where 'A' is charged with receiving a particular
stolen wristwatch knowing the same to be stolen-The fact that at the same time
he was in possession of other such stolen articles is relevant
B.In a case where 'A' is tried for the murder of 'B' by
intentionally shooting him to death-The fact that 'A' was in the habit of
shooting at people with intent to murder them is relevant
C.In a case where 'A' is sued for damages for bite injury caused
by his dog to 'B', 'A' having known the dog to be ferocious-The fact that the
dog had previously bitten 'X', 'Y' and 'Z' is relevant
D.In a case where 'A' is accused of defaming 'B' by publishing an
imputation intended to harm the reputation of 'B'-The fact of previous
publications by 'A' respecting 'B', showing ill-will on the part of 'A' towards
'B' is relevant
18.
Answer: Option
B
Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 relevancy of facts forming part of
the same transaction has been discussed in
A.Section 6
B.Section 7
C.Section 8
D.Section 11
19.
Answer: Option
A
Which of the following section of Indian Evidence is amended by
the criminal law amendment act 2013
A.Section 113A
B.Section 113B
C.Section 114A
D.Section 114B
20.
Answer: Option
C
A court cannot compel the parties to undergo a blood test, to
establish the legitimacy of the child because it would amount to declaring the
mother as unchaste and child as illegitimate. This view was laid down in which
one of the following cases?
A.Pawan Kumar v. Mukesh Kumari
B.Subash v. Lata Shah
C.Ningamma v. Chikkiya
D.Gautam Kundu v. State of West Bengal
Answer: Option C
A carbon copy of the injury report prepared by a Doctor by one uniform process
by which the original was prepared may be admitted as
A.Secondary evidence
B.Primary evidence
C.Direct evidence
D.Circumstantial evidence
22.
Answer: Option
B
Admissions and confessions are-
1. Exception to the hearsay evidence
2. Part of hearsay evidence
3. Form relevant evidence
4. Admitted in evidence on proof
Select the correct answer:
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 4
C.1 and 2
D.2
23.
Answer: Option
B
Burden of proof is lightened by
A.Presumption
B.Admissions
C.Estoppel
D.All of the above
24.
Answer: Option
D
The history sheet of an accused person, kept in the police station
is not a man's character, as it is based on:
A.Conviction
B.Hearsay
C.Investigation
D.None of them
25.
Answer: Option
B
The examination, after the cross-examination of a witness by the
party who has called him, is called-
A.Main examination
B.Additional cross-examination
C.Re-examination
D.Re-cross examination
26.
Answer: Option
C
"Evidence obtained by undesirable means is admissible if it
is otherwise relevant." The court said so in
A.Pushpa Devi M. Jatiav. M. L. Wadhawah
B.Hurprashad v. Shea Dayal
C.Kalpnath Rai v. State of Maharashtra
D.Rouny v. State of Maharashtra
27.
Answer: Option
A
Which one among the following is common in the provisions of
Section 123, Section 126 and Section 127 of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.They are irrelevant and inadmissible
B.They are irrelevant but admissible
C.They are relevant but inadmissible
D.They are relevant and admissible
28.
Answer: Option
C
Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which among the following does
not come under the category of privileged communications?
A.Communications made during marriage
B.Communications made by a witness who is unable to communicate
verbally
C.Official communications
D.Professional communications
29.
Answer: Option
B
Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals
with character of a person as affecting damages?
A.Section 65
B.Section 16
C.Section 55
D.Section 42
30.
Answer: Option
C
Due execution and authentication of a power of attorney shall be
presumed under Section 85 of Evidence Act when executed before and
authenticated by:
A.A notary
B.A judge
C.A magistrate
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
31.
Unless non-access is proved, the presumption as to legitimacy of
any child bom during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and
any man is-
A.Rebuttable presumption of law
B.Presumption of fact
C.Mixed presumption of law and fact
D.Irrebuttable presumption of law
32.
Answer: Option
D
A agrees, in writing, to sell a horse to B for "Rs. 1000 or
Rs. 1500".
A.Evidence cannot be given to show which price was to be paid for
sale
B.Evidence can be given to show which price was to be paid for
sale
C.Evidence cannot be given to show the average of the sale prices
D.Evidence can be given to show the average of the sale prices
33.
Answer: Option
A
What is conclusive proof of legitimacy under the law of Evidence?
A.Birth during marriage
B.DNA Test
C.Father's acceptance
D.Child statement
34.
Answer: Option
A
Provisions have been made under certain Sections of the Indian
Evidence Act regarding relevancy of certain facts. Match the entries of List-I and List-II below and write the correct
answer:
|
List I (Facts) |
List II (Sections) |
|
a. Opinion of Handwriting
Expert |
1. 22 |
|
b. State of relevant fact
by person who is dead or cannot be found |
2. 47 |
|
c. Previous good character
in criminal cases |
3. 32 |
|
d. Oral admissions as to
contents of documents |
4. 53 |
A.a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
B.a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
C.a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
D.a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
35.
Answer: Option
A
Under Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which of the
following facts becomes relevant, namely
A.Facts showing state of mind
B.Facts showing state of body
C.Facts showing state of bodily feelings
D.All the above
36.
Answer: Option
D
Section 114-A of the Indian Evidence Act is related to
A.Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman
B.Presumption as to abetment of suicide by an woman
C.Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecution for
rape
D.None of the above
37.
Answer: Option
C
For the Court to make the presumption as mentioned in Section 90
of the Evidence Act about the document produced before it, such document must
be purported or proved to be . . . . . . . . years old.
A.15
B.20
C.25
D.30
38.
Answer: Option
D
Primary evidence means and includes:
A.Oral account of the contents of the document by a person who has
seen the original document
B.The original document
C.True copy made from and compared with the original document by a
private party
D.None of the above
39.
Answer: Option
B
Which one among the following is not a primary Evidence?
A.A document executed in several parts
B.A copy made from or compared with original
C.Document executed in counterparts
D.Documents made by one uniform process
40.
Answer: Option
B
A super imposed photograph of the deceased over the skeleton of a
human body to prove that the skeleton was of the deceased is relevant under-
A.Section 7
B.Section 8
C.Section 9
D.Section 10
Answer: Option C
Under which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act opinion as to
digital signature is relevant?
A.Section 34
B.Section 39
C.Section 47-A
D.Section 85-A
42.
Answer: Option
C
For presumption under section 107 of Evidence Act, the person is
to be shown to be alive
A.Within 7 years
B.Within 12years
C.Within 3 years
D.Within 30 years
43.
Answer: Option
D
When can leading questions be asked?
A.In cross-examination
B.In examination in chief with the permission of the court
C.In re-examination with the permission of the court
D.In all the above situations
44.
Answer: Option
D
Oral evidenceis not admissible to clarify the language used in a
document when the language is
A.Ambiguous or defective on its face
B.Plain but not applying to the facts
C.Plain but applying to two sets of facts
D.Related with terms of regional nature
45.
Answer: Option
A
In which of the following cases did the court held that a party
who produces witnesses in court produces them as witnesses of truth; and simply
because portions of their statements are not favourable to the party producing
them, they cannot be condemned as biased witnesses?
A.Gyasuddin Khan vs. State of Bihar, AIR 2004 SC 201 : 2004 CrLJ
395
B.Lekhraj vs. State of Gujarat, AIR 1998 SC 242 : 1998 CrLJ 396
C.Gulabchand Ganbhiramal vs. Kudilal Govindram, AIR 1959 MP 151 :
1961 CrW 55 (FB)
D.Siddiqua vs. Narcotics Control Bureau, 2007 CrLJ 1471 (Del)
46.
Answer: Option
C
A puts jewels of her into a box belonging to B with the intention
that the circumstances may cause B to be convicted of theft. What offence has
been committed?
A.Fraud
B.Giving False evidence
C.Fabricating False evidence
D.None of the above
47.
Answer: Option
C
A' says to 'B' that he has finished his wife forever. Under Indian
Evidence Act this statement amounts to
A.Admission
B.Confession
C.Statement
D.All the above
48.
Answer: Option
B
A' (a client) says to 'B' (an attorney), 'I wish to obtain
possession of property by use of forged deed on which I request you to sue'.
According to Section 126 of the Evidence Act, what is the legal position of
this communication?
A.The communication is protected from disclosure
B.The communication is not protected from disclosure
C.Limited protection can be granted
D.This communication can be rejected
49.
Answer: Option
B
Contents of a document under section 59 of Evidence Act
A.Can be proved by oral evidence
B.Can not be proved by oral evidence
C.May or may not be proved by oral evidence
D.Can only be proved by oral evidence under the order of the court
50.
Answer: Option
B
Oral admissions as to contents of electronic records are relevant
when the genuineness of the:
A.Electronic record produced is in question
B.Digital signature on electronic record produced is in question
C.Custody of electronic record is in question
D.Digital signature certificate is in question
Answer: Option A
51.
If no attesting witness can be found it must be proved that:
A.Attestation of one attesting witness at least is in his
handwriting
B.Signature of the person executing the document is in the
handwriting of that person
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
52.
Answer: Option
C
Whether following document are public documents.
A.Relating to acts or orders of acts of the sovereign authority
B.Public record kept in state of private documents
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
53.
Answer: Option
C
The question before the court is whether document 'X' is the will
of 'A'. Which of the following is relevant:
A.A' had consulted Advocates in reference to making the will
B.A' had caused drafts of wills to be prepared of which he did not
approve
C.A' had made enquiries as to the value of his estate which he has
bequeathed
D.All the above
54.
Answer: Option
D
Immediately before dying, signs and gestures made by a victim,
whose throat was cut by the accused, in answer to questions, indicating the
person who had wounded him, are admissible under Section-
A.6
B.7
C.32
D.33
55.
Answer: Option
C
Under Indian Evidence Act evidence may be given in respect of
A.Fact in issue only
B.Relevant fact only
C.Fact in issue and relevant fact
D.None of these
56.
Answer: Option
C
The question is, whether. A was ravished. The fact that without
making a complaint, she said that she had been ravished:
A.Is relevant as conduct
B.Is not relevant as conduct
C.Cannot be relevant as a dying declaration
D.Cannot be relevant as corroborative evidence
57.
Answer: Option
B
Statement of an injured person is recorded as dying declaration,
however he survives. His Statement is admissible under which section of the
Evidence Act?
A.Section 32
B.Section 60
C.Section 85
D.Section 157
58.
Answer: Option
D
Which of the following statements is correct?
A.Leading questions may be freely asked in examination-in-chief of
a witness
B.Leading questions may be freely asked in cross-examination
C.Leading questions may be freely asked in re-examination
D.Leading questions may not be put to a witness of tender years
Answer: Option
B
59.
Facts alleged by one party and denied by the other in a case are termed as
A.Positive facts
B.Negative facts
C.Relevant facts
D.Facts in issue
Answer: Option
D
60.
A dying declaration is relevant
A.Only if it is in writing
B.Only if it is recorded by a Magistrate
C.Even if oral, and it relates to the cause of death
D.If it is recorded by a Doctor
Answer: Option C
61.The principle of estoppel is given under which of the following
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.Section 115
B.Section 114
C.Section 114-A
D.None of the above
Answer: Option
A
62.
During re-examination of witness under Indian Evidence Act, 1872
A.A new matter can be raised as a matter of right generally
B.No new matter can be raised
C.A new matter can be raised only with the permission of the court
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C
Comments
Post a Comment