Indian Penal Code 500+ MCQs for All State Judiciary Exams

1. When did the Indian Penal Code received the Governor General’s assent?

A. October 3, 1850

B. October 5, 1852

C. October 6, 1860

D. October 7, 1865

Ans: C

2. Wrongful confinement in secret is dealt under

A. Section 344 of IPC

B. Section 345 of IPC

C. Section 346 of IPC

D. Section 347 of IPC

Ans: C

3. After the submission of the draft of the Indian Penal Code in 1837, who reviewed the draft Code?

A. Sri Barnes Peacock

B. Sri Rajgopalachari

C. Sir. J. W. Colvile

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans: D

4. The right to prosecution under the Indian Penal Code:

A. is affected by the provisions of other statutes

B. is not affected by the provisions of the other statutes

C. is not applicable under the provisions of the Companies Act

D. is not applicable in the areas of Mikir Hills

Ans: B

5. Intercourse by a man with his wife during separation is dealt under

A. Section 374 A of IPC

B. Section 375 A of IPC

C. Section 376 A of IPC

D. Section 377 A of IPC

Ans: C

6. All are true except one concerning the duty of the Court in regard to the interpretation of the words of ambiguous import in a penal statute?

A. The court must ascertain if the offence charged is within the meaning of the words of the statute

B. If the only reasonable way of construing a penal statute without stretching its legal language is one, which goes against the accused, then it must be fully upheld in its entirety.

C. It is the duty of the Court to interpret words of ambiguous import in a broad and liberal sense

D. In case of penal statute is uncertain or ambiguous or at capable of two interpretations, the benefit of the ambiguity should go to the accused

Ans: B

7. Intercourse by public servant with woman in his custody is dealt under

A. Section 373 B of IPC

B. Section 374 B of IPC

C. Section 375 B of IPC

D. Section 376 B of IPC

Ans: D

8. Extortion by threat of accusation of an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for ten years is dealt under

A. Section 385 of IPC

B. Section 386 of IPC

C. Section 387 of IPC

D. Section 388 of IPC

Ans: D

9. Mens rea involves:

A. crimes of basic intent

B. crimes of speculative intent

C. crimes of specific intent

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans: D

10. The accused booked two cases containing heroin on a flight from City A to City B and then to City C. On reaching City C, he did not collect the heroin. He was charged with being knowingly concerned in the fraudulent evasion of restrictions on importation of cannabis under customs and excise laws. He was held guilty of the offence charged as he has brought about the importation by deliberate actions committed with a guilty intent. The accused took the victim to a hut and killed him striking over his head. In order to make it an accidental death the dead body was rolled over a cliff. The medical report revealed that death was due to exposure and it was not caused in the hut.

A. The accused is guilty of murder in both the cases

B. The accused is not guilty in the first case however is guilty of manslaughter in the second case

C. The accused is not guilty in neither of the cases

D. The accused is guilty in the first case and not in the second case

Ans: B

11. Fraudulent removal or concealment of property, etc to prevent distribution among creditors is dealt under

A. Section 421 of IPC

B. Section 422 of IPC

C. Section 423 of IPC

D. Section 424 of IPC

Ans: A

12. C and F and F invited C to have a fix of his heroin. Each filled his own syringe and injected each other several times during one night. Next morning F died on the question of causation:

A. C must convicted of manslaughter

B. C must not be convicted of manslaughter

C. C can be convicted for the possession of heroin only

D. C is neither guilty of possessing heroin nor the death of F

Ans: A

13. The accused in order to evade arrest was holding D against her will and was using her body as a shield. He fired a shotgun at the police officer who returned the fire in which D was killed. Which the following should be the first step of the Court on the question of causation?

A. The Court must immediately convict the accused

B. The Court must direct the jury to be sure that the accused fired the first shot

C. The police officer must be convicted

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

14. Assisting concealment or disposal of stolen property knowing it to be stolen is dealt under

A. Section 411 of IPC

B. Section 412 of IPC

C. Section 413 of IPC

D. Section 414 of IPC

Ans: D

15. All except one is false statement about legal mens rea:

A. it refers to mental element necessary for the particular crime

B. the mental element may be either intention to do the immediate act or bring about the consequences

C. intention or recklessness as to the elements constituting the actus reus

D. intention can always be satisfactorily defined

Ans: D

16. Mischief is dealt under

A. Section 426 of IPC

B. Section 427 of IPC

C. Section 428 of IPC

D. Section 429 of IPC

Ans: A

17. To which of the following, the law of presumption applies?

A. volenti non fit injura

B. mens rea

C. de minimus non curat lex

D. none of them

Ans: B

18. What is the position of the mens rea in its purely technical sense for the offences under the Indian Penal Code?

A. it holds the same position as it does under the English Criminal Law

B. it has no application

C. it has indirect application

D. both (B) and (C).

Ans: D

19. Lurking house trepass or house-breaking is dealt under

A. Section 452 of IPC

B. Section 453 of IPC

C. Section 454 of IPC

D. Section 455 of IPC

Ans: B

20. Punishment for subjecting a married woman to cruelty is dealt under

A. Section 497 of IPC

B. Section 498 of IPC

C. Section 498AofIPC

D. Section 500 of IPC

Ans: C

21. Which of the following is a type of legal fault that necessarily does not involve a mental state?

A. Negligence

B. Intention

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans: A

22. Which of the following introduced Section 10-C of the IPC?

A. Amendment Act 10 of 1972

B. Amendment Act 30 of 1974

C. Amendment Act’ 40 of 1976

D. Amendment Act 42 of 1980

Ans: B

23. Presumption of culpable mental state is a part of:

A. Section 7-C of the IPC

B. Section 8-C of the IPC

C. Section 9-C of the IPC

D. Section 10-C of the IPC

Ans: D

24. Death or grievous hurt caused by one of several persons jointly concerned in house breaking by night, etc is dealt under

A. Section 45 8 of IPC

B. Section 459 of IPC

C. Section 460 of IPC

D. Section 461 of IPC

Ans: C

25. Section 10-C was used in which of the following cases?

A. Devaki v. State (Kerala 2000)

B. Devamani v. State (Madras 1983)

C. Devraj v. State of Punjab (1992)

D. Devilal v. State (Delhi administration 1986)

Ans: B

26. A man by deceit causing a woman not lawfully married to him to believe that she is lawfully married to him and to cohabit with him in that behalf is dealt under

A Section 493 of IPC

B. Section 494 of IPC

C. Section 495 of IPC

D. Section 496 of IPC

Ans: A

27. All except one is false of the crimes that do not require legal fault on the part of the accused.

A. quasi criminal cases which are prohibited in public interest under a penalty

B. cases of public nuisance, libel and contempt of court

C. cases with criminal proceeding but is a mode of enforcing a civil right

D. cases of domestic violence

Ans: D

28. In which of the following conditions a corporation can be prosecuted?

A. if it is a person under Section 10 of the Penal Code

B. if it is a person under Section 11 of the Penal Code

C. if it is a person under Section 12 of the Penal Code

D. if it is a person under Section 14 of the Penal Code

Ans: B

29. The maxim of law impontia excusat legam is intimately connected with which maxim of law.

A. lex cogit adimpossiblis

B. lex non ad impossiblis

C. lex non cogit ad impossiblis

D. lex actus reus impossiblis

Ans: C

30. Two brothers sleeping on the floor of a room. The victim was done to death admittedly by the accused around midnight with a dao when the victim was in deep slumber. The defence stated that the accused in his dream was being throttled by someone so he took out the dao kept the head of the bed to apprehend his attacker. However the dao hit his brother and killed him.

A. The accused must be convicted under criminal liability

B. The accused must be absolved from criminal liability

C. it is a case of automatism

D. both (B) and (C)

Ans: D

31. In which of the following case regarding the ‘degree of proof ‘ and ‘reasonable doubt’ the Supreme Court has held that: “In a criminal trial the degree of proof is stricter than what is required in a civil proceeding. In criminal trial however intriguing may be facts and circumstances of the case, the charges made against the accused must be proved beyond all reasonable doubt, does not stand altered even after the introduction of Section 498-A I.P.C and Section 113-A of Indian Evidence Act___________The doubt must of reasonable man and the standard adopted must be a standard adopted by a reasonable and just man for coming to a conclusion considering the particular subject matter.”

A. State of West Bengal v. Orilal Jaiswal (1994)

B. Inder Singh v. State (Delhi Administration) (1978)

C. Uma Shankar v. State of UP (1979)

D. Dhram Das Dadhwani v. State of UP (1974)

Ans: A

32. Marrying again during the lifetime of a husband or wife is dealt under

A. Section 493 of IPC

B. Section 494 of IPC

C. Section 495 of IPC

D. Section 496 of IPC

Ans: B

33. Regarding ‘reasonableness of doubt’ in which of the following case the Supreme Court indicated: “That the conscience of the Court can never be bound by any rule but that is coming itself dictates the consciousness and prudent exercise of the judgement. Reasonable doubt is simply that degree of doubt which would permit a reasonable and just man to come to conclusion. Reasonableness of the doubt be commensurate with the nature of the offence to be investigated__________ Letting guilty is not doing justice, according to the law”

A. Gurbachan Singh v. Satpal Singh (1990)

B. Nagar Swasthya Adhikari v. Kishan Singh (1969)

C. Ashrubindu Ray v. Chittaranjan Banerjee (1978)

D. None of them

Ans: A

34. Making or counterfeiting a seal, plate, etc, with intent to commit a forgery punishable otherwise than under section 467 of the Indian Penal Code, or possessing with like intent any such seal plate, etc, knowing the same to be counterfeit is dealt under

A. Section 471 of IPC

B. Section 472 of IPC

C. Section 473 of IPC

D. Section 474 of IPC

Ans: C

35. In case same set of facts attracts a civil suit and also a criminal trial, what should be done?

A. The civil suit should be stayed

B. The criminal case should be stayed

C. The civil suit should be quashed

D. Both should be simultaneously carried out

Ans: A

36. Act caused by inducing a person to believe that he will be rendered an object of Divine displeasure is dealt under

A. Section 506 of IPC

B. Section 507 of IPC

C. Section 508 of IPC

D. Section 509 of IPC

Ans: C

37. Which of the following is a fundamental maxim of natural justice?

A. audi alteram partem

B. nullum tempus occurritregi

C. memo debet esse judex in propria causa sua

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans: D

38. As far as complaints are concerned, at which of the following stage summons are issued?

A. Section 202 of Cr. PC

B. Section 203 of Cr. PC

C. Section 204 of Cr. PC

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans: C

39. X was accused of a criminal offence by Y and the case pended on for 12 years, during which not a single witness was produced by the prosecution. Which of the following article of the Constitution of India in this case was violated?

A. Article 12, Constitution of India

B. Article 15, Constitution of India

C. Article 21, Constitution of India

D. Article 25, Constitution of India

Ans: C

40. Criminal intimidation is dealt under

A. Section 506 of IPC

B. Section 507 of IPC

C. Section 508 of IPC

D. Section 509 of IPC

Ans: A

41. Mr. X was prosecuted for importing gold into India in contravention of Section 8(1) of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947 read with the notification there under. It was argued that notification dated November 8, 1962 and that the accused could have no idea about as it was published in the Gazette of India while the accused left his country on November 27, 1962.

A. the contention must be upheld as the plea of ignorance is valid

B. the contention must be repelled as the plea of ignorance is not valid

C. the case must be upheld because accused is a foreign national

D. None of them

Ans: B

42. House-trespass in order to the commission of an offence punishable with imprisonment for life is dealt under

A. Section 448 of IPC

B. Section 449 of IPC

C. Section 450 of IPC

D. Section 451 of IPC

Ans: C

43. In a certain case in the High Court an advocate made a complaint against A, a Sub-Inspector of Police that A in course of investigation of a few cases against F in official capacity oppressed him in the exercise of his official capacity which was offence under Section 124 Government of India Act 1910.

A. the High Court have the jurisdiction to summon and punish the delinquent

B. the High Court does not have the jurisdiction to summon and punish the delinquent

C. the High Court have the jurisdiction only to summon the delinquent

D. none of them

Ans: B

44. Which of the following are always exempted from the jurisdiction of criminal courts of every country?

A. Foreign sovereigns and ambassadors

B. Alien enemies, foreign army and warships

C. Presidents and Governors

D. All of them

Ans: D

45. Mischief with intent to destroy or make unsafe a decked vessel or a vessel of 20 tonnes burden is dealt under

A. Section 434 of IPC

B. Section 435 of IPC

C. Section 436 of IPC

D. Section 437 of IPC

Ans: D

46. Which of the following Section of the IPC relate to extraterritorial operations of the Code?

A. Section 2 and Section 3

B. Section 3 and Section 4

C. Section 2 and Section 3

D. Section 2 and Section 4

Ans: B

47. Kidnapping for ransom, etc is dealt under

A. Section 361 A of IPC

B. Section 362 A of IPC

C. Section 363 A of IPC

D. Section 364 A of IPC

Ans: D

48. To which of the following section does the Section 4 of the IPC applies?

A. any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India

B. any person on ship or aircraft registered India wherever it may be

C. Both of (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans: C

49. Appellant’s son was married to the complainants and appellant was undisputedly a Mauritius citizen and her son and daughter-in-law were residing in Kuwait. A complaint petition was filed before the chief judicial magistrate XYZ by complainant alleging therein mental torture and physical harassment by her husband. Appellant (mother-in- law of the complainant) who was also made a party filed an application for quashing of proceeding on the ground that cognizance taken by the magistrate was bad in law as she was Mauritius citizen and the alleged offence was committed in Kuwait where only cause of action had arisen:

A. The entire proceeding as been illegally initiated and without jurisdiction and actions taken by the court is liable to be nullified

B. The cognizance taken by the magistrate and the process issued is in order

C. Only the principle of res judicata will apply in such case

D. None of them

Ans: A

50. Fraudulently marking a false mark upon any package or receptacle containing goods, with intent to cause it to be believed that it contains goods which ir does not contain etc is dealt under

A. Section 485 of IPC

B. Section 486 of IPC

C. Section 487 of IPC

D. Section 488 of IPC

Ans: C

51. Piracy covers:

A. jure gentium

B. statute law of England

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans: C

52. Making or using documents resembling currency-notes or bank notes is dealt under

A. Section 489 D of IPC

B. Section 489 E of IPC

C. Section 490 of IPC

D. Section 491 of IPC

Ans: B

53. Being bound to attend on or supply the wants of a person who is helpless from youth, unsoundness of mind or disease, and voluntarily omitting to do so is dealt under

A. Section 489 D of IPC

B. Section 489 E of IPC

C. Section 490 of IPC

D. Section 491 of IPC

Ans: D

54. Acts A, B and C constitute an offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act and the same acts A, B and C constitute an offence under Section 408, Penal Code. Therefore:

A. the offender can be punished under both the Acts

B. the offender cannot be punished at all

C. the offender can be punished under either of the Acts but not both

D. none of them

Ans: C

55. Extortion by threat of accusations of an offence punishable with death imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for ten years and if the offence threatened be an unnatural offence is dealt under

A. Section 388 of IPC

B. Section 389 of IPC

C. Section 390 of IPC

D. Section 391 of IPC

Ans: A

56. Robbery if committed on the highway between sunset and sunrise is dealt under

A. Section 390 of IPC

B. Section 391 of IPC

C. Section 392 of IPC

D. Section 393 of IPC

Ans: C

57. Which Section of the IPC should be read as provision to Section 105 of the Evidence Act?

A. Section 5 of IPC

B. Section 4 of IPC

C. Section 3 and 5 IPC

D. Section 6 of IPC

Ans: D

58. Using a false property mark with inten to deceive or injure any person is dealt under

A. Section 480 of IPC

B. Section 481 of IPC

C. Section 482 of IPC

D. Section 483 of IPC

Ans: C

59. Which of the following explains the ‘sense of expression once explained’?

A. Section 6 and Section 7 of IPC

B. Section 6 of IPC

C. Section 7 of IPC

D. None of them

Ans: C

60. Which of the following is a limitation with vicarious liability?

A. certain crimes because of their nature cannot be committed by a corporation

B. corporal punishment cannot be imposed on a corporation

C. cannot be convicted of manslaughter

D. both (A) and (C)

Ans: D

61. Criminal liability of a corporation arises when:

A. an offence is committed in the course of corporation’s business by the person in control of its affairs

B. an offence is committed in the course of corporation’s business by a person in control whose thought and intent becomes thought and intent of the corporation

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans: C

62. Extortion by a putting a person in fear of death or grievous is dealt under

A. Section 385 of IPC

B. Section 386 of IPC

C. Section 387 of IPC

D. Section 388 of IPC

Ans: B

63. Which of the following is true is of the word “Judge” under Section 19 of IPC?

A. denotes a person officially designated as a Judge

B. denotes every person who is empowered by law to give a definitive judgment in any legal proceeding, civil or criminal

C. denotes of a body of persons which is empowered by the law to give judgment

D. all of them

Ans: D

64. Person voluntarily causing hurt in committing or attempting to commit robbery, or any other person jointly concerned in such robbery is dealt under

A. Section 394 of IPC

B. Section 395 of IPC

C. Section 396 of IPC

D. Section 397 of IPC

Ans: A

65. Which of the following does not fall under the category of the word “Judge” as coined in Section 19?

A. Magistrate

B. Member of a Panchayat

C. Collector

D. Businessman

Ans: D

66. Which of the following amendment added Clause 11 and Explanation 4 in Section 21 of IPC?

A. Act XXXIX, 1920

B. Adaptation of Laws Order, 1950

C. Act II, 1950

D. Anti-Corruption Act, 1964

Ans: B

67. In which of the following case the principle was held by the Supreme Court that where a subsequent Act incorporates provisions of a previous act, the burrowed provisions become an integral and independent part of the subsequent Act and are totally unaffected by any repeal or amendment in the Prevention Act, does not apply?

A. where the subsequent Act and the previous Act are supplemental to each other

B. where the two Acts are pari material and where the amendment of the previous Act either expressly or by necessary intendment, applies the said provisions to the subsequent Act

C. where the amendment in the previous Act if not imported into the subsequent Act would render the Act unworkable and ineffectual

D. all of them

Ans: D

68. Which of the following is not relevant to the practice and procedures of Section 22 of IPC?

A. does not provide definition of “public servant”

B. no court can take cognizance of any offence against a public servant except with the previous sanction of the Central Government or the State Government as per the provisions of Section 197 Cr. P.C

C. the protection is available to a person, if on the date of commission of offence he was public servant irrespective of his subsequent retirement, resignation, dismissal or even removal

D. deals with extra territorial applicability but does not define any substantive offence or procedure

Ans: D

69. X is an owner of a property and he owe some money to Y. X has not been able to pay the due and Y forcibly took possession of his property against his will to pressurise him into paying up his debts.

A. Y has all the authority to do so

B. X no longer has right over his property

C.Y is guilty of theft

D. None of them

Ans: C

70. In a certain case in Delhi the accused proposed marriage of his son with the gentleman of a daughter who was pregnant with someone else’s child (a fact that has not been concealed). However he concealed the fact that his son is suffering from a mental disorder the gentleman marries his daughter to his son then the accused:

A. cannot be hold guilty because even the gentleman’s daughter is at fault

B. is prima facie guilty of cheating due to the element of wrongful gain involved

C. cannot be accused as it the gentleman’s responsible to the ascertain complete fact concerning the would be bridegroom

D. none of them

Ans: B

71. Oral threat or inducement allegedly given by lawyers to approver not to give any statement against accused:

(a) amounts to commission of offence

(b) does not amount to commission of offence

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (b)

72. Theft under section 379 IPC is not tenable if:

(a) property is not a movable property

(b) property cannot be moved in order to such taking

(d) both (a) & (b).

Ans. (d)

73. If the appellants are liable to be convicted only for their individual acts then:

(a) section 34 IPC can be invoked

(b) section 34 IPC cannot be invoked

(d) section 149 IPC cannot be invoked.

Ans. (b)

74. When all the incriminating facts and circumstances are found to be incompatible with the innocence of the accused then:

(a) the inference of guilt can be justified

(b) the inference of guilt cannot be justified

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (a)

75. In which case the Supreme Court held that if a student and teacher fall in love with each other, it does not mean that the teacher has taken undue advantage of his official position:

(a) Geejaganda Somaiah v. State of Karnataka (2007)

(b) Sanjay v. State of Maharashtra (2007)

(d) Kailash v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2007)

Ans. (c)

76. Under the Indian Penal Code who among the following is liable for committing theft:

(a) child below 7 years of age

(b) child below 8 years of age

(d) child between 7 and 12 years of age having maturity of understanding.

Ans. (d)

77. Under the general principle of Criminal Law, the jurisdiction to try a person for an offence depends upon:

(a) place where such person is found

(b) place where crime committed within local area

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (b)

78. The imprisonment for the offence of molestation under IPC amounts to:

(a) imprisonment upto 2 years

(b) imprisonment upto 1 year

(d) imprisonment upto 3 months

Ans. (a)

79. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that “Doctors cannot be held guilty only because something has gone wrong”:

(a) Maniben v. State of Gujarat, AIR 2010 SC 1261

(b) Southern Railway Officer v. Union of India, AIR 2010 SC 1241

(d) Malaya Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar, AIR 2010 SC 1162.

Ans. (d)

80. As per section 195A of IPC which was inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 the offence of threatening any person to give false evidence, is punishable with:

(a) imprisonment upto 7 years or with fine or with both

(b) imprisonment upto 5 years or with fine or with both

(d) imprisonment upto 1 year or with fine or with both

Ans. (a)

81. As per section 153AA of IPC, which was inserted by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005, the punishment for knowingly carrying arms in any procession or organising or holding or taking part in any mass drill or mass training with arms, is punishable with:

(a) imprisonment upto 6 months and with fine upto Rs. 2,000

(b) imprisonment upto 3 months and with fine upto Rs. 2,000

(d) imprisonment upto 1 month and with fine upto Rs. 2,000.

Ans. (a)

82. The Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 (10 of 2009) with effect from 27 October, 2009 which amended the Indian Penal Code in section 464, substituted “Electronic Signature” for:

(a) Digital signature

(b) Documentary Evidence

(d) Electronically certified signature.

Ans. (a)

83. “A” gave poisoned “Halwa” (sweet dish) to “B” with intention to kill him. “B” ate one spoon and kept it on the side. “C” who was sitting there, picked up and ate it. “C” dies. Here “A” is guilty of:

(a) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(b) Offence of murder of “C”

(d) Causing grievous hurt.

Ans. (b)

84. The term “Harbour” defined under Indian Penal Code, 1860, does not include:

(a) Supplying a person with shelter

(b) Supplying a person means of conveyance

(d) Prior to the commission of the offence, facilitating the commission thereof.

Ans. (d)

85. When a women was taking bath in her bathroom, “X” captures the image in his mobile and upload it on her facebook page. What offence has been committed by “X”:

(a) Sexual assault

(b) Insulting the modesty of a woman

(d) Stalking.

Ans. (c)

86. Read the following:

(1) There is either theft or extortion in robbery

(2) The offence of theft becomes robbery when it is coupled with danger to life.

Of the above:

(a) (1) is true but (2) is false.

(b) (1) is false but (2) is true,

(d) (1) and (2) both are false.

Ans. (c)

87. Read the following:

(1) Indian Courts have jurisdiction to try crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country.

(2) Indian Courts do not have jurisdiction to try crime committed by a foreigner in India.

Of the above:

(a) (1) is true but (2) is false.

(b) (1) is false but (2) is true.

(d) Both (1) and (2) are false.

Ans. (c)

88. Read the following:

(1) The maxim “Actus me invito factus non est mens acts” finds application in Section 94 of I.P.C.

(2) The maxim “diminmis non curat lex” has been incorporated in Section 95 of I.P.C.

Of the above:

(a) (1) is true but (2) is false.

(b) (1) is false but (2) is true.

(d) Both (1) and (2) are false.

Ans. (c)

89. In which case the Supreme Court of India has said that the time has come when Section 309 of the I.P.C. should be deleted by Parliament:

(a) Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union of India

(b) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (a)

90. ‘Z’ is carried off by a tiger. ‘A’ fires at the tiger knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill Z but not intending to kill Z; and in good faith intending Z’s benefit. A’s bullet gives Z a mortal wound. A shall be guilty of:

(a) Murder

(b) Culpable homicides not amounting to murder

(d) No offence.

Ans. (d)

91. In which of the following cases, recently the Supreme Court has upheld the constitutional validity of a criminal statute in “offences against the order of the nature”:

(a) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India

(b) Charu Khurana v. Union of India

(d) Suresh Kumar Khushal v. Naz Foundation.

Ans. (d)

92. Robbery is dacoity when the minimum number of persons committing robbery is:

(a) 10 persons

(b) 5 persons

(d) 4 persons.

Ans. (b)

93. Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India, (2014) 3 SCC 1 is the case related to:

(a) giving false evidence before the court

(b) waging war against the state

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (c)

94. ‘A’ claiming to be a family planning expert gave ‘X’ some chemical. After consuming the chemical, the child in the womb of ‘X’ dies in the womb. ‘A’ has committed:

(a) No offence

(b) Offence of murder

(d) Offence of causing miscarriage.

Ans. (d)

95. ‘A’ by falsely pretending to be in the civil service, intentionally deceives ‘Z’, and thus dishonestly induces ‘Z’ to let him have on credit goods for which he does not mean to pay. ‘A’ has committed:

(a) Cheating by personation

(b) Cheating

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (b)

96. Read the following:

(1) R. v. Mcnaughten is the case related with insanity as a defence.

(2) R. v. Govinda is the case related with common intention.

Of the above:

(a) (1) is true but (2) is false

(b) (1) is false but (2) is true

(d) Both (1) and (2) are false.

Ans. (a)

97. “A” under the influence of unsoundness attempt to kill “B”. “B” in attempting to defend himself caused grievous hurt to “A”. Here:

(a) “A” is liable for attempt to murder and “B” is liable for causing hurt

(b) “A” commits no offence and “B” is liable for grievous hurt

(d) Both “A” and “B” are excused from liability.

Ans. (d)

98. In which of the following Sections of I.P.C. ‘preparation’ is punishable:

(a) Sections 121, 125, 398

(b) Sections 122, 125, 399

(d) Sections 121, 126, 398.

Ans. (c)

99. Which of the following is not “sine qua non” for making a person criminally liable:

(a) Actus reus

(b) Mens rea

(d) All the above.

Ans. (c)

100. To which of the following offences the Apex Court judgment in Abhayanand Mishra v. State of Bihar is related to:

(a) Sections 420 and 511 of I.P.C.

(b) Section 511 of I.P.C. only

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

101. What should be the age of minor to constitute the offence of kidnapping:

(a) 16 years

(b) 18 years

(d) Below 18 years in case of male and below 21 years in case of female.

Ans. (c)

102. ‘A’ having joint property with Z in a horse, intending thereby to cause wrongful loss to Z, shoots the horse. Under what section of I.P.C. ‘A’ shall be charged with:

(a) Section 426

(b) Section 429

(d) Section 438.

Ans. (b)

103. ‘A’ has consensual sexual relations with ‘Z’s wife. She gives to ‘A’ a valuable property which ‘A’ knows to belong to her husband ‘Z’ and she has no authority from ‘Z’ to give. ‘A’ takes the property dishonestly. Which one of the following offences has been committed by ‘A’:

(a) Criminal breach of trust

(b) Theft and criminal breach of trust

(d) Criminal misappropriation.

Ans. (c)

104. Adultery is an offence committed:

(a) with the consent of a married woman

(b) with the consent of a woman

(d) with the consent of a minor girl.

Ans. (a)

105. The expression “unsoundness of mind”:

(a) is not defined in I.P.C.

(b) is defined in I.P.C.

(d) is not general exception in I.P.C.

Ans. (a)

106. State of A.P. v. R. Punnayya case deals with distinction between which of following sections of Indian Penal Code:

(a) Sections 501 and 502

(b) Sections 299 and 300

(d) Sections 305 and 306.

Ans. (b)

107. Which sections of Indian Penal Code provides for the offences relating to the Army, Navy and Air Force:

(a) Sections 171A to 171-1

(b) Sections 124 to 129

(d) Sections 165 to 171.

Ans. (c)

108. In which case the court made a clear distinction between ‘common intention’ and ‘similar intention’:

(a) Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. King Emperor

(b) Mahboob Shah v. King Emperor

(d) Rishi Deo Pandey v. State of U.P.

Ans. (b)

109. Which is not the ‘stolen property’:

(a) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating

(b) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery

(d) Possession whereof was obtained by criminal breach of trust.

Ans. (a)

110. In which of the following cases, the offence of ‘house-breaking’ is committed:

(a) A commits house-trespass by entering Z’s house through the door, having lifted a latch by putting a wire through a hole in the door

(b) A finds the key of Z’s house-door, which Z had lost, and commits house-trespass, by entering Z’s house through that key

(c) Z, the doorkeeper of Y, is standing in Y’s doorway. A commits house-trespass by entering the house, having deterred Z from opposing him by threatening to beat him

(d) All these.

Ans. (d)

111. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer:

A. All the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013

B. Some of the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013

C. Most of the recommendations of Justice Verma Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013

D. None of the above.

Ans. D

112. Which of the following sections have been inserted in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, namely:

A. Section 376A

B. Section 376B

C. Sections 166A, 166B, 354C

D. All of the above.

Ans. D

113. According to Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the assistant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right is the act of:

A. Stalking

B. Voyeurism

C. Acid Attack

D. All of the above.

Ans. C

114. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:

A. Section 326A

B. Section 326B

C. Section 228A

D. Section 228.

Ans. B

115. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is punishable offence under Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:

A. Section 354A

B. Section 354B

C. Section 354C

D. Section 354D.

Ans. A

116. A man shall be guilty of the offence of sexual harassment under section 354A of Indian Penal Code, 1860, if he commits:

(i) Physical contact and advances involving unwelcome and explicit sexual overtures.

(ii) A demand or request for sexual favours.

(iii) Showing pornography against the will of a woman.

(iv) Making sexually coloured remarks.

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iii)

C. (i), (ii) and (iii)

D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

Ans. D

117. A man is said to commit “rape” if he penetrates his penis, to any extent, into the ________ of a woman:

A. Vagina

B. Mouth

C. Urethra or Anus

D. All of the above.

Ans. D

118. When a man inserts, to any extent, any object or a part of the body, not being the penis, into the vagina, the urethra or anus of a woman or makes her to do so with him or any other person, he commits:

A. Rape

B. Sexual Harassment

C. Sexual Assault

D. None of the above.

Ans. A

119. To establish section 34 of IPC:

A. common intention be proved but not overt act be proved

B. common intention and overt act both be proved

C. common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved

D. all the above.

Ans. A

120. Section 34 of IPC:

A. creates a substantive offence

B. is a rule of evidence

C. both (a) and (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. B

121. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. Y killed ‘Z’:

A. only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of Z

B. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’

C. ‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform any overt act

D. both (a) & (c).

Ans. B

122. ‘Voluntarily’ has been defined as an effect caused by means whereby a person intended to cause it or by means, at the time of employing those means, know or had reason to believe to be likely to cause it under:

A. section 39

B. section 38

C. section 37

D. section 40.

Ans. A

123. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes:

A. life of a human being

B. life of an animal

C. life of human being and of an animal both

D. life of either human being or animal.

Ans. A

124. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes:

A. death of a human being

B. death of an animal

C. death of a human being and of an animal both

D. death of either human being or an animal.

Ans. A

125. Illegal signifies:

A. everything which is an offence

B. everything which is prohibited by law

C. everything which furnishes ground for civil action

D. all the above.

Ans. D

126. Animal denotes:

A. any living creature including human being

B. any living creature other than a human being

C. any creature – live or dead

D. either (a) or (c).

Ans. B

127. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code:

A. three

B. six

C. five

D. four.

Ans. C

128. Under section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of imprisonment, the sentence of imprisonment:

A. has to be wholly rigorous

B. has to be wholly simple

C. can be partly rigorous and partly simple

D. either (a) or (b).

Ans. C

129. Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine under section 64 of IPC:

A. shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been sentenced

B. shall be concurrent of any other imprisonment

C. shall not be in excess of any other imprisonment

D. both (b) & (c).

Ans. A

130. Under section 65 of IPC sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall be limited to:

A. one-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence

B. one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence

C. one-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence

D. equal to the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.

Ans. B

131. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non-payment of fine:

A. has to be rigorous

B. has to be simple

C. can be rigorous or simple

D. can be partly rigorous and partly simple.

Ans. B

132. Under section 498A of IPC cruelty includes:

A. harassment of the woman

B. physical cruelty only

C. mental cruelty only

D. cruelty by wife.

Ans. A

133. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine of not exceeding Rs. 100 but exceeding Rs. 50, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed:

A. two months

B. three months

C. four months

D. six months.

Ans. C

134. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine exceeding Rs. 100, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed:

A. one year

B. six months

C. four months

D. two months.

Ans. B

135. Section 64 of IPC provides for:

A. nature & maximum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine

B. nature & minimum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine

C. nature but does not prescribe any limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine

D. limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine but does not prescribe the nature of imprisonment.

Ans. C

136. Imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall terminate:

A. on payment of fine

B. on expiry of the term of imprisonment for non-payment

C. both (a) & (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. C

137. In case of imprisonment for non-payment of fine, if a part of the fine is paid, such sentence:

A. shall be reduced proportionately

B. shall not be reduced in direct proportion to the fine paid

C. shall be reduced but subject to the discretion of the court as to the quantum of reduction

D. all of the above.

Ans. A

138. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be:

A. one year

B. two years

C. three months

D. six months.

Ans. C

139. If an offender has been sentenced to imprisonment not exceeding six months, the solitary confinement:

A. shall not exceed 15 days

B. shall not exceed one month

C. shall not exceed two months

D. shall not exceed forty-five days.

Ans. B

140. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding six months but not exceeding one year, the term of solitary confinement:

A. shall not exceed one month

B. shall not exceed forty-five days

C. shall not exceed two months

D. shall not exceed three months.

Ans. C

141. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding one year, the term of solitary confinement shall not exceed:

A. one month

B. two months

C. three months

D. six months.

Ans. C

142. Nothing is said to be done or believed to be done in goodfaith which is done or believed without due care & intention – is the definition of goodfaith contained in:

A. section 29 of IPC

B. section 29A of IPC

C. section 52 of IPC

D. section 52A of IPC.

Ans. C

143. General exceptions are contained in:

A. chapter III of IPC

B. chapter IV of IPC

C. chapter V of IPC

D. chapter VI of IPC.

Ans. B

144. Section 76 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or who by reason of:

A. mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it

B. mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it

C. mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by morals to do it

D. all the above.

Ans. A

145. Under section 79, nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is justified by law or who by reason of mistake of fact in goodfaith believes himself to be:

A. bound by law to do it

B. justified by law to do it

C. bound by morality to do it

D. all the above.

Ans. B

146. The maximum ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means:

A. ignorance of law is no excuse

B. ignorance of fact is no excuse

C. ignorance of law is an excuse

D. ignorance of fact is an excuse.

Ans. A

147. Section 76 & section 79 of IPC provide the general exception of:

A. mistake of law

B. mistake of fact

C. both mistake of law and fact

D. either mistake of law or of fact.

Ans. B

148. Accident as an exception has been dealt with in:

A. section 77

B. section 78

C. section 80

D. section 82.

Ans. C

149. Under section 80, the exception of accident is available when an offence is committed while:

A. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means

B. doing a lawful act in any manner by any means

C. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by any means

D. all the above.

Ans. A

150. The principle as to the way in which a man should behave when he has to make a choice between two evils is illustrated in:

A. section 80 of IPC

B. section 81 of IPC

C. section 82 of IPC

D. section 78 of IPC.

Ans. B

151. Who was the President of the drafting committee of the Indian Penal Code?

A. Lord William Bentinck

B. Lord Curzon

C. Lord Macaulay

D. Lord Irwin

Ans. C

152. Assault or use of criminal force on a woman with intent to outrage her modesty is dealt under-

A. Section 354 of IPC

B. Section 355 of IPC

C. Section 356 of IPC

D. Section 357 of IPC

Ans. A

153. Under which name the Indian Penal Code came into application in Jammu and Kashmir?

A. Indian Legislative Act

B. Ranbir Penal Code

C. Indian Penal Act

D. Mahomedan Act

Ans. B

154. Assault or use of criminal force in an attempt to wrongfully confine a person is dealt under-

A. Section 357 of IPC

B. Section 358 of IPC

C. Section 359 of IPC

D. Section 360 of IPC

Ans. A

155. Which of the following is the principle applied in construing a penal Act?

A. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will be resolved against the person who would be liable to the penalty.

B. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will be resolved in the favour of the person who would be liable to the penalty.

C. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will attract life imprisonment.

D. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will attract capital punishment.

Ans. B

156. Which of the following matches is incorrect relative to the use of the English law?

A. Sections 96 to 106 of the Code – can be interpreted on the basis of principles governing self defence under the English law

B. Reliance on case decided under the English law – misleading

C. In defamation cases the court must with reference – Section 499

D. Indian Penal Code is based on – English Common Law in respect to the major offences which are universally applicable

Ans. A

157. Putting or attempting to put a person in fear of death or grievous hurt in order to commit extortion is dealt under-

A. Section 385 of IPC

B. Section 386 of IPC

C. Section 387 of IPC

D. Section 388 of IPC

Ans. C

158. actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea means?

A. a deed, a material result of human conduct

B. the intent and act must both concur to constitute the crime

C. putting to death

D. uncommended manner

Ans. B

159. X added potassium cyanide into Y’s drink intending to kill him. However, Z also happened to sip from Y’s glass. They both died. The medical report claimed that Y actually died of a cardiac arrest, as the poisonous substance administered was insufficient to cause his death. In addition, Z died due to the effect of the poison. So:

A. X is liable for the death of Y and not for the death of Z

B. X is not liable for the death neither of Y nor of Z

C. X is liable for the death of both Y and Z

D. X is liable for the death of Z only

Ans. B

160. Cheating and thereby dishonesty inducing delivery of property, or the making alteration or destruction of a valuable security is dealt under-

A. Section 417 of IPC

B. Section 418 of IPC

C. Section 419 of IPC

D. Section 420 of IPC

Ans. D

161. Literally, mens rea means:

A. guilty mind

B. a guilty or a wrongful purpose

C. a criminal intent, a guilty knowledge and wilfulness

D. All of the above

Ans. D

162. The appellant stabbed the deceased in the abdomen. The deceased was taken promptly to hospital and the wound was stitched but few days later he died. The evidence showed that at the time of death the wound had healed. But due to terramycin injection being given in excess lungs had become over logged and caused pneumonia on the question of causation:

A. The appellant can be acquitted

B. The appellant cannot be acquitted

C. The appellant and the doctor both cannot be acquitted

D. The doctor must be acquitted

Ans. A

163. Habitually dealing in stolen property is dealt under-

A. Section 411 of IPC

B. Section 412 of IPC

C. Section 413 of IPC

D. Section 414 of IPC

Ans. C

164. Cheating is dealt under-

A. Section 417 of IPC

B. Section 418 of IPC

C. Section 419 of IPC

D. Section 420 of IPC

Ans. A

165. Even though a man’s knowledge that a particular consequence will probably result from his act is sometimes an insufficient basis for saying that he intends it, there are strong reasons for holding that as a legal matter he can be held to intend something that he knows for sure he is doing. This is called:

A. skewed intent

B. oblique intent

C. hypothetical intent

D. square intent

Ans. B

166. In which of the following cases mens rea is not an essential ingredient for offences under-

A. Revenues Acts

B. Public nuisance

C. Criminal case which are in summary mode

D. All of these

Ans. D

167. During house trespass or house-breaking in order to the commission of an offence punishable with imprisonment and if the offence is theft is dealt under-

A. Section 169 of IPC

B. Section 170 of IPC

C. Section 171 of IPC

D. Section 454 of IPC

Ans. D

168. Defamation against the President or the Governor of a State or Administrator of a Union Territory or Minister in respect of his conduct in the discharge of his public functions when instituted upon a complaint made by the Public Prosecutor is dealt under-

A. Section 497 of IPC

B. Section 498 of IPC

C. Section 498A of IPC

D. Section 500 of IPC

Ans. D

169. A had an argument with B and asked her to go leave him alone and go home. B refused and A struck her on the head and rendered her unconscious. A dragged B to the parking lot during which B’s head hit the pavement which caused her death.

A. A is not responsible for her death as that was not the intent

B. A is only responsible for assaulting her

C. A is responsible for B’s death as the death was caused due A’s negligence

D. None of them

Ans. C

170. Presumption of culpable mental state of a person as per Section 10-C of the IPC includes:

I. Intention

II. Motive

III. Knowledge of fact

IV. Belief in or reason to believe a fact

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II, III and IV only

D. I, II, III and IV

Ans. D

171. Grievous hurt caused whilst committing lurking house trespass or house breaking is dealt under-

A. Section 458 of IPC

B. Section 459 of IPC

C. Section 460 of IPC

D. Section 461 of IPC

Ans. B

172. Dishonesty breaking open or unfastening any closed receptacle containing or supposed to contain property is dealt under-

A. Section 458 of IPC

B. Section 459 of IPC

C. Section 460 of IPC

D. Section 461 of IPC

Ans. D

173. A President of a Pharmaceutical Company for introducing into interstate commerce drugs that were misbranded. The President pleaded lack of knowledge of this fact?

A. The President must be convicted

B. The President must be acquitted

C. The President and the company must be convicted

D. none of them

Ans. A

174. False statement, rumour, etc, with intent to create enmity, hatred or ill-will between different classes is dealt under-

A. Section 169 of IPC

B. Section 505 of IPC

C. Section 171 of IPC

D. Section 172 of IPC

Ans. B

175. X an employee of Y was driving the vehicle which was without insurance. Y was convicted for violation of Road Traffic Act, 1988, who was not even driving the vehicle at that time. Y appealed against it in the court.

A. the conviction should be upheld

B. the conviction must be set aside

C. both the X and Y must be convicted

D. only X must be convicted

Ans. B

176. The question whether a corporate body should or should not be liable for criminal action resulting from the acts of some individuals must depend on:

A. nature of the offense disclosed by the allegations in the complaint or in the charge sheet

B. the relative position of the officer or agent vis-a-vis the corporate body

C. other relevant facts and circumstances which could show the corporate body as such meant or intended to commit that act

D. all of them

Ans. D

177. Automation in legal sense implies:

A. self-acting of performance or involuntary acts

B. without any knowledge of acting or action

C. with no consciousness of what is being done

D. all of them

Ans. D

178. Which of the following is false about the presumption of innocence?

A. this holds good in all kinds of trials including criminal trials

B. in this case the crime must be brought to a prisoner

C. it can be easily rebutted

D. graver the crime, greater will be the degree of doubt that is reasonable

Ans. C

179. Which of the following is pointed out by the Supreme Court regarding the rejection of the prosecution case on paltry ground?

A. The public are generally reluctant to come forward to depose before the court hence it not correct to reject the prosecution version on the ground that all witnesses to the occurrences have not been examined.

B. Invariably the witnesses add embroidery to the prosecution story, perhaps for the fear of disbelief, which is not a ground to throw the case overboard.

C. It is not proper to reject the case for want of corroboration by the independent witnesses if the case made out is otherwise true or acceptable.

D. All of them

Ans. D

180. Enticing or taking away or detaining with a criminal intent a married woman is dealt under-

A. Section 497 of IPC

B. Section 498 of IPC

C. Section 498A of IPC

D. Section 500 of IPC

Ans. B

181. Which of the following is not true of the absence of explanation from the accused?

A. it is not sufficient to rebut so strong a presumption as that of innocence

B. it is capable of being taken into account to corroborate other evidence

C. proof of guilt can be inferred from the mere absence of explanation

D. it is not material

Ans. C

182. Forgery is dealt under-

A. Section 464 of IPC

B. Section 465 of IPC

C. Section 466 of IPC

D. Section 467 of IPC

Ans. B

183. Having possession of a document, knowing it to be forged, with intent to use it as genuine; if the document is one of the description mentioned in section 466 of the Indian Penal Code is dealt under-

A. Section 471 of IPC

B. Section 472 of IPC

C. Section 473 of IPC

D. Section 474 of IPC

Ans. D

184. In which of the following case the Supreme Court pointed out this fact in relation to the above question?

A. State of Punjab v. Bhajan Singh (1975)

B. M.S. Sheriff v. State of Madras (1954)

C. Tika v. State of UP (1974)

D. None of them

Ans. B

185. Attempting to commit offences punishable with imprisonment of life or imprisonment, and in such attempt doing any act towards the commission of the offence is dealt under-

A. Section 510 of IPC

B. Section 511 of IPC

C. Section 512 of IPC

D. Section 513 of IPC

Ans. B

186. Which of the following is the facet of audi alteram partem?

A. notice of the case to be met

B. good faith

C. opportunity to explain

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. D

187. In respect to cases instituted otherwise than on Police report, under which section charges are framed?

A. Section 240 Cr. PC.

B. Section 246 Cr. PC.

C. Section 256 Cr. P.C.

D. None of them

Ans. B

188. False statement rumour, etc., made in place of worship etc, with intent to create enmity hatred or ill-will is dealt under-

A. Section 128 of IPC

B. Section 201 of IPC

C. Section 505 of IPC

D. Section 302 of IPC

Ans. C

189. Under which section of the IPC a person irrespective of his nationality can be held guilty and is liable to punishment for any offence within India?

A. Section 2 of IPC

B. Section 5 of IPC

C. Section 7 of IPC

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. A

190. Mischief committed after preparation made for causing death, or hurt, etc. is dealt under-

A. Section 438 of IPC

B. Section 439 of IPC

C. Section 440 of IPC

D. Section 441 of IPC

Ans. C

191. Being entrusted with any closed receptacle containing or supposed to contain any property, and fraudulently opening the same is dealt under-

A. Section 462 of IPC

B. Section 463 of IPC

C. Section 464 of IPC

D. Section 465 of IPC

Ans. A

192. Under which of the following a corporation is indictable?

A. Vicarious liability

B. Personal liability for breach of statutory duty

C. Personal liability on the basis of attributing to the corporation the conduct and state of mind of an individual

D. All of them

Ans. D

193. X participated in the child marriage of Y in another country. Both X and Y were still Indian citizens at the time the marriage took place.

A. Y is liable for punishment under Section 3

B. Y is not liable as the marriage took place on a foreign soil

C. Both X and Y are liable for punishment under Section 3

D. None of them

Ans. C

194. Running vessel ashore with intent to commit theft, etc. dealt under-

A. Section 438 of IPC

B. Section 439 of IPC

C. Section 440 of IPC

D. Section 441 of IPC

Ans. B

195. Which of the following section makes all the offences under the Code without exception to be extra territorial?

A. Section 2

B. Section 4

C. Section 5

D. Section 7

Ans. B

196. Kidnapping or abducting a woman to compel her marriage or to cause her defilement etc. is dealt under-

A. Section 365 of IPC

B. Section 366 of IPC

C. Section 367 of IPC

D. Section 368 of IPC

Ans. B

197. Extradition is:

A. to surrender of one State to another of a person desired to be dealt with crimes of which he has been accused or convicted and which are justifiable in the Courts of the other countries

B. a political act done in pursuance of a treaty or an arrangement ad hoc

C. it can be sought on either in terms of treaty or on reciprocal arrangement

D. all of them

Ans. D

198. Knowingly selling goods marked with counterfeit property mark is dealt under-

A. Section 485 of IPC

B. Section 486 of IPC

C. Section 487 of IPC

D. Section 488 of IPC

Ans. B

199. Over which of the following admiralty jurisdiction extends?

A. Offences committed on Indian ships on the seas

B. Offences committed on foreign ships in Indian territorial waters

C. Piracy

D. All of them

Ans. D

200. Which of the following is true about special law?

A. relates to a particular subject

B. applies only to a particular part of the country

C. excise, opium and cattle trespass act

D. both (A) and (C)

Ans. D

201. On refusal to disclose the name and address of the printer is dealt under-

A. Section 489 D of IPC

B. Section 489 E of IPC

C. Section 490 of IPC

D. Section 491 of IPC

Ans. C

202. Which of the following section of the IPC does not affect the provisions of any Act for punishing mutiny and desertion of officers, soldiers, sailors or airmen in the service of the Government of India or the provisions of any special or local law?

A. Section 3 of IPC

B. Section 4 of IPC

C. Section 5 of IPC

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. C

203. The law of contempt is exercised in case of:

A. contempt committed in facie curiae

B. contempt committed in generalia specialibus non derogrant

C. contempt committed in ultra vires

D. contempt committed in ad hoc

Ans. A

204. Robbery is dealt under-

A. Section 391 of IPC

B. Section 392 of IPC

C. Section 393 of IPC

D. Section 394 of IPC

Ans. B

205. False statement in connection with elections is dealt under-

A. Section 170 G of IPC

B. Section 171 G of IPC

C. Section 172 G of IPC

D. Section 173 G of IPC

Ans. B

206. Promoting enmity between classes in place of worship, etc. is dealt under-

A. Section 153A of IPC

B. Section 154A of IPC

C. Section 155A of IPC

D. Section 156A of IPC

Ans. A

207. A, surgeon, in good faith communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The patient dies in consequence of the shock.

A. A is guilty as he should have withheld the communication

B. A is not guilty as he rightly discharged his duties

C. A is not guilty as he did not give any false hopes

D. Both (B) and (C)

Ans. D

208. The defendant was set to watch his master’s premises. He saw a man on the garden wall and hailed him and then shot at him aiming at his legs. He missed and shot the deceased whom he had not seen.

A. the defendant is justified in shooting the deceased

B. the defendant is guilty of manslaughter

C. the defendant is not guilty as his own life was danger

D. none of them

Ans. B

209. The motive under section 81 of IPC should be:

A. prevention of harm to person

B. prevention of harm to property

C. both (a) and (b)

D. either (a) or (b).

Ans. D

210. ‘Infancy’ as an exception has been provided under:

A. section 80

B. section 81

C. section 82

D. section 84.

Ans. C

211. Section 82 of IPC provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:

A. six years of age

B. seven years of age

C. nine years of age

D. ten years of age.

Ans. B

212. Section 82 of IPC enunciates:

A. a presumption of fact

B. a rebuttable presumption of law

C. a conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law

D. none of the above.

Ans. C

213. A person is stated to be partially incapax under section 83, IPC if he is aged:

A. above seven years and under twelve years

B. above seven years and under ten years

C. above seven years and under sixteen years

D. above seven years and under eighteen years.

Ans. A

214. Section 83 of IPC lays down:

A. a presumption of fact

B. an inconclusive or rebuttable presumption of law

C. conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law

D. irrebuttable presumption of fact.

Ans. B

215. Section 82 of IPC lays down the rule of:

A. wholly incapax

B. partially incapax

C. both (a) & (b)

D. either (a) or (b).

Ans. A

216. Under section 82 & section 83 of IPC an offence is punishable if it is done by a child:

A. of below seven years of age

B. of above seven years of age but below twelve years if he has not attained sufficient maturity and understanding

C. of above seven years of age but below twelve years having attained sufficient maturity and understanding

D. all the above.

Ans. C

217. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched:

A. Mens Rea – R. v. Prince

B. Necessity – D.P.P. v. Beard

C. Insanity – Mc’Naughten case

D. Intoxication – Basudeo v. State of Pepsu.

Ans. C

218. The maxim ‘actus non facit rea nisi mens sit rea’ means:

A. crime has to be coupled with guilty mind

B. there can be no crime without a guilty mind

C. crime is the result of guilty mind

D. criminal mind leads to crime.

Ans. B

219. “In every statute, mens rea is to be implied unless the contrary is shown.”:

This view was expressed in-

A. Sherras v. De Rutzen

B. R. v. Dudley & Stephen

C. Harding v. Price

D. R. v. Prince.

Ans. A

220. Which of the following is correct for the aforesaid:

I. The physical aspect of crime is actus reas.

II. The mental aspect of crime is mens rea.

III. The motive is the desire to commit crime

A. I & II are correct but III is not correct

B. only II & III

C. only II & III

D. all the above.

Ans. D

211. Section 84 of IPC provides for:

A. medical insanity

B. legal insanity

C. moral insanity

D. unsoundness of mind of any kind.

Ans. B

212. Irresistible impulse is a defence:

A. in India

B. in England

C. in India and England both

D. neither in India nor in England.

Ans. D

213. A hangman who hangs the prisoners pursuant to the order of the court is exempt from criminal liability by virtue of:

A. section 77 of IPC

B. section 78 of IPC

C. section 79 of IPC

D. section 76 of IPC.

Ans. B

214. Insanity as a defence means that a person at the time of doing an act, by reason of unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing:

A. the nature of the act

B. that what he is doing is wrong

C. that what he is doing is contrary to law

D. either (a) or (b) or (c).

Ans. D

215. Which of the following is correct:

A. the burden of proof that the accused was not insane at the time of commission of offence is on the prosecution

B. the burden of proving that the accused was insane at the time of commission of offence is on the accused

C. there is a rebuttable presumption of fact that accused was insane at the time of commission of the offence

D. it is a matter of inference to be drawn by the court on the facts proved by the prosecution.

Ans. B

216. For unsoundness of mind, the impairment of the cognitive faculty of mind to escape criminal liability:

A. must be total

B. must be partial

C. both (a) & (b)

D. none of the above.

Ans. A

217. Intoxication as defence is contained in:

A. section 85 of IPC

B. section 86 of IPC

C. section 87 of IPC

D. both (a) & (b).

Ans. D

218. For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the degeneration of mental faculties:

A. must be total

B. must be partial

C. both (a) & (b)

D. only (b) above is correct & (a) is incorrect.

Ans. A

219. For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the intoxication:

A. can be self-administered

B. administered against his will or knowledge

C. should not be self-administered

D. all the above.

Ans. B

220. In cases where the act involves a specific mens rea, in cases of intoxication under section 86 of IPC:

A. the existence of mens rea is presumed

B. the specific mens rea is not presumed

C. the specific mens rea depends upon the attending circumstances & the degree of intoxication

D. none of the above.

Ans. C

221. The doctrine ‘volenti nonfit injuria’ is contained in:

A. section 87 of IPC

B. section 88 of IPC

C. section 89 of IPC

D. all the above.

Ans. D

222. The defence of ‘consent’ applies to:

A. private wrongs

B. public wrongs

C. both (a) & (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. A

223. The defence of ‘consent’ is restrictive in its applicability in cases involving:

A. alienable rights

B. inalienable rights

C. both (a) &(b)

D. neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. B

224. The defence of ‘consent’ is not available in cases of:

A. consent to cause death

B. consent to cause grievous hurt

C. both (a) & (b)

D. either (a) or (b).

Ans. C

225. Operation of consent to all offences, short of causing death intentionally, has been extended under:

A. section 88 of IPC

B. section 90 of IPC

C. section 91 of IPC

D. section 87 of IPC.

Ans. A

226. Under section 89 the consent in respect of infants under 12 years of age or persons of unsound mind:

A. can be given by their guardians without any restriction

B. can be given by the guardian subject to restrictions mutually agreed upon

C. can be given by the guardians subject to restrictions imposed by law

D. all the above.

Ans. C

227. The consent is not a valid consent under section 90:

A. if given under a fear of injury or misconception of fact

B. if given by a person of unsound mind

C. if given by a child below 12 years of age

D. all the above.

Ans. D

228. Consent given under compulsion arising out of threat of injury:

A. excuses the causing of death

B. excuses causing of any offence against the state punishable with death

C. both (a) & (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. D

229. The maxim ‘de minimus non curat lex’ means:

A. law would not take action on small & trifling matter

B. law does not ignore any act which causes the slightest harm

C. law would not take action in serious matters

D. all the above.

Ans. A

230. The principle ‘de minimus non curat lex’ is contained in:

A. section 92 of IPC

B. section 93 of IPC

C. section 94 of IPC

D. section 95 of IPC.

Ans. D

231. The right of private defence is contained in:

A. section 94 of IPC

B. section 95 of IPC

C. section 96 of IPC

D. section 98 of IPC.

Ans. C

232. The right to private defence is based on the natural instinct of:

A. self-preservation

B. self-respect

C. self-sufficiency

D. self-reliance.

Ans. A

233. The right to private defence is:

A. unrestricted

B. subject to restriction contained in section 99 of IPC

C. subject to restrictions contained in Chapter IV of IPC

D. subject to restrictions contained in any other provision of IPC.

Ans. B

234. Right to private defence is:

A. available under all circumstances

B. available where there is time to have the recourse to the protection of public authorities

C. available where there is no time to have recourse to the protection of public authorities

D. all of the above.

Ans. C

235. The law on private defence in India:

A. is the same as in England

B. is narrower than the one in England

C. is wider than the one in England

D. none of the above.

Ans. C

236. The right to private defence is available with respect to:

A. harm to body

B. harm to movable property

C. harm to immovable property

D. all the above.

Ans. D

237. Under section 98 right to private defence also is available against a:

A. person of unsound mind

B. person who does not have maturity of understanding

C. both (a) & (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. C

238. Every person has a right of private defence of his own body and the body of any other person against any offence affecting the human body, has been provided:

A. under section 96 of IPC

B. under section 97 of IPC

C. under section 98 of IPC

D. under section 99 of IPC.

Ans. B

239. Under Article 32 a writ petition can be made to the Supreme Court by a person who himself has suffered only. Under which of the following, a relative or friend of a person aggrieved can file a writ petition:

A. Habeas Corpus

B. Mandamus

C. Certiorari

D. all of the above.

Ans. A

240. The right guaranteed under Article 32 can be suspended:

A. by the Parliament

B. by the State Legislature

C. by the Supreme Court of India

D. when proclamation of emergency is in operation.

Ans. D

241. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Article 32 are subject to the rule of Res judicata except:

A. Quo Warranto

B. Habeas Corpus

C. Certiorari

D. Prohibition.

Ans. B

242. The right given by Article 32:

A. cannot be abrogated by the Act of Legislature

B. cannot be abrogated unless the Constitution itself is amended

C. can be altered by the State Legislature

D. none of the above.

Ans. B

243. The Supreme Court has power under Article 32 to issue directions or orders or writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari:

A. only when there is a question of enforcement of a fundamental right

B. when there is a question of internal disputes among communal groups

C. when there is a question of election disputes

D. when there is a question of riotous situation.

Ans. A

244. Under which one of the following cases the traditional rule of filing petition only by the person aggrieved except in the case of habeas corpus is relaxed:

A. Trilokchand Moichand v. H.B. Munshi

B. Joginder Nath v. UOI

C. Rabindranath Bose v. UOI

D. Upendra Baxi v. State of UP.

Ans. D

245. Under Article 32:

A. time limit can be imposed on filing of petitions and so the Indian Limitation Act applies

B. there is no lower and upper limit. The party aggrieved must move the court at the earliest possible time and it is the discretion of the court to decide whether it is reasonable delay or not.

C. time limit can be imposed by council of ministers

D. all of the above.

Ans. B

246. According to Article 30 ‘minorities’ have the right for the administration of educational institutions:

A. which have been established by them only

B. which not necessarily have not been established by them but belong to their religion or language

C. Article 30 does not speak about minority but deals with Scheduled Tribes only

D. none of the above.

Ans. B

247. According to Articles 25 and 26, what constitutes an essential part of religion or religious practice is to be decided by the court on the basis of:

A. doctrines of particular religion

B. by referendum

C. by majority

D. by convening a religious meeting.

Ans. A

248. The fundamental rights as envisaged under Articles 12-35 are:

A. absolutely flexible

B. can be amended

C. not justiciable

D. cannot be amended at all.

Ans. B

249. Right of disabled employee as equal citizens not to be defeated by their superiors and they have no right to defeat their lawful rights:

A. Sunil Poddar v. Union Bank of India

B. Mani v. State of Tamil Nadu

C. Bhagwan Dass v. Punjab State Electricity Board

D. None of the above.

Ans. C

250. In the case of People’s Union for democratic Rights v. UOI:

A. non-payment of minimum wages is violative of Article 21

B. the decision in this case did not hearld for right to live with basic human dignity

C. Article 21 does not envisage right to live with human dignity

D. none of the above.

Ans. A

251. The protection given to the accused under Article 20(3) against compulsion ‘to be witness’ also includes ordinary documentary and testimonial evidence:

A. the protection given under Article 20(3) is not attracted by the above statement

B. the protection given under Article 20(3) is attracted by the above statement

C. witness means other than an accused to whom protection is not given

D. none of the above.

Ans. B

252. In case of A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras, the Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was found conflicting with the two Articles:

A. Articles 14 and 17

B. Articles 19 and 21

C. Articles 23 and 25

D. Articles 23 and 32.

Ans. B

253. Which section of Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was declared ultra vires by the Supreme Court in case of A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras:

A. Article 17

B. Article 11

C. Article 14

D. Article 19.

Ans. C

254. In a Calcutta case, Manager of a Bank took security for overdraft from the customer and caused the security to be entered into the books of the banks. The Manager shortly afterwards returned the security to the customer before satisfaction of the overdraft. The fact of return of security was mentioned in the books of accounts.

A. The Manager acted dishonesty under Section 24

B. The customer acted of dishonesty under Section 24

C. both the Manager and the customer acted dishonestly under Section 24

D. Neither of them is guilty

Ans. C

255. One Mrs. Komai bought a car on the name of her daughter, Kiran, who is a minor, and got the insurance policy transferred on her name (Mrs. Komal). The car met with an accident on two counts and she file for a claim on both the counts, from the insurance agency. She acknowledged the receipt of the money as Kiran. The insurance company her prosecuted under Section 467 of the IPC alleging fraud on the appellant’s part?

A. Mrs. Komal is guilty of forgery because she made the insurance company believed that she is Kiran

B. Mrs. Komal is not guilty of forgery because the said deceit did not secure her any advantage as the entire transaction was that of Mrs. Komal

C. Mrs. Komal is guilty of forgery because she signed all the papers in the name of Kiran

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. B

256. Dishonest misappropriation of property, knowing that it was in possession of a deceased person at his death and that it has not since been in the possession of any person legally entitled to it is dealt under-

A. Section 402 of IPC

B. Section 403 of IPC

C. Section 404 of IPC

D. Section 405 of IPC

Ans. C

257. 148 Criminal breach of trust is dealt under-

A. Section 406 of IPC

B. Section 407 of IPC

C. Section 408 of IPC

D. Section 409 of IPC

Ans. A

258. Which of the following is false of Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code?

A.it is only a rule of evidence

B. it does not create a distinct offence

C. lays down principle of liability

D. it is a penal provision

Ans. D

259. In a case P, a married lady was found in a pool of blood and lying on the ground. On the way to hospital in ambulance she breathed her last. It transpired in the evidence that when P was seated outside her jhuggi, her brother came near her and challenged as to why she made a complaint against her own brother R to the police, Her other brother R and Sharma too came. There was an altercation wherein Sharma stabbed her to death. Which of the following is true regarding this particular case?

A. As to the vicarious liability of R & C, that the accused Sharma was not carrying an open knife in his hand and there was no evidence to show that this fact was in the knowledge of the other accused.

B. Sharma had not given any call to his brothers that P should be stabbed to death. Otherwise all the accused had not come together and for that reason it is difficult to assume that all had a prior meeting of mind to cause the death of their sister.

C. The words used by C were to teach P a lesson for making false accusations. Keeping in view the close relationship, it is difficult to assume that all of them had shared the common intention to kill P. Under these circumstances, there is no reason to rope C and R by aid of Section 34, IPC and they were acquitted.

D. All of them

Ans. D

260. Belonging to gang of persons associated for the purpose of habitually committing dacoity is dealt under-

A. Section 398 of IPC

B. Section 399 of IPC

C. Section 400 of IPC

D. Section 401 of IPC

Ans. C

261. Buying or obtaining possession of a minor for the same purposes is dealt under-

A. Section 371 of IPC

B. Section 372 of IPC

C. Section 373 of IPC

D. Section 374 of IPC

Ans. C

262. Which of the following does not attract Section 34 of the IPC?

A. the accused husband killed his wife and threw her dead body into the well to the knowledge of co- accused. As yet co-accused took the false plea that on date and hour incident the deceased was present in the house.

B. the accused was involved in looting the victims in broad daylight on the main public road. Main accused indulged in looting but co-accused was simply standing nearby.

C. Driver and cleaner of a bus when form a common intention to kill the deceased and in pursuance of the plan kill him and take away the sale proceeds of the grain sold by him

D. all of them except the co-accused in B.

Ans. D

263. Habitual dealing in salves is dealt under-

A. Section 371 of IPC

B. Section 372 of IPC

C. Section 373 of IPC

D. Section 374 of IPC

Ans. A

264. Which of the following is false of Section 34 and Section 149 of the IPC?

A. S. 34 does not by itself create any specific offence whereas S. 149 does so

B. Some active participation in crime is required in S. 34 while it is not needed in S. 149

C. S. 34 speaks of common intention while S. 149 contemplates common object

D. S. 34 requires at least five persons who must share the common intention while S. 149 requires at least two persons to share the common intention

Ans. D

265. A attacks Z under such circumstances of grave provocation that his killing of Z would be only culpable homicide not amounting to murder. B, having ill-will towards Z, and intending to kill him and not having been subject to the provocation, assists A in killing Z. Which of the following judgment under Section 38 of IPC applies to A and B?

A. A is guilty of culpable homicide and B is guilty of murder

B. B is guilty of culpable homicide and A is guilty of murder

C. Both A and B are guilty of culpable homicide

D. Both A and B are guilty of murder

Ans. A

266. The basic principle which runs through Section 32 to 38 of IPC is that:

A. in certain circumstances some part of the act is attributed to a person who may have performed only a fractional part of it.

B. in certain circumstances an entire act is attributed to a person who may have performed only a fractional part of it.

C. in certain circumstances an entire act is attributed to a person who may have performed the whole of it.

D. in certain circumstances no act is attributed to a person who may have performed only a fractional part of it.

Ans. B

267. Abetment of any offence, if the act abetted is committed in consequence, and where no express provision is made for its punishment is dealt under-

A. Section 109 of IPC

B. Section 110 of IPC

C. Section 111 of IPC

D. Section 112 of IPC

Ans. A

268. A quarrel arose between C on the one side and A and B on the other. C abused A, whereupon A struck him with a stick, and B struck him down with an axe on the head. He also received two other wounds with the axe on the other parts of the body. Any one of the three axe wounds was sufficient enough to cause death, especially the one on the head.

A. C is guilty for voluntarily provoking the attack while B is guilty of culpable homicide

B. A is guilty of culpable homicide, while B is guilty of voluntarily causing hurt

C. B is guilty of culpable homicide, while A is guilty of voluntarily causing hurt

D. Both A and B are guilty of culpable homicide

Ans. C

269. All about ‘intention’ is true except one:

A. is a state of mind

B. is an objective element

C. rarely susceptible to proof

D. always a matter of inference

Ans. B

270. The word ‘illegal’ is applicable to everything:

A. which is an offence

B. which is prohibited by law

C. which furnishes ground for civil action

D. all of them

Ans. D

271. Several persons assemble at the door of the house of one K and the appellant struck a blow with a kencha which fell on the left thigh of a workman working in the house of one K whom the appellant and others wanted to attack, and as the appellant struck at the very first person who opened the door and that was how that came to receive the injury.

A. every person is guilty of vicarious liability excluding the appellant

B. only the appellant is to be convicted for the said injury

C. none is guilty of vicarious liability

D. none of them

Ans. B

272. Abetment of any offence when one act is abetted and a different act is done; subject to proviso is dealt under-

A. Section 109 of IPC

B. Section 110 of IPC

C. Section 111 of IPC

D. Section 112 of IPC

Ans. C

273. In a case the accused was convicted u/s. 325 I.P.C. and was sentenced by trial Court to two months R.I. with fine of Rs. 500 for offence under S. 325 I.P.C. The trial pended for seven long years.

A. the sentence is improper for an offence under Section 325 I.P.C

B. the sentence is proper and appropriate

C. the accused should be sentenced to fine and imprisonment till the rising of Court

D. both (A) and (C)

Ans. D

274. A gives Z fifty strokes with a stick. Here A may have committed the offence of voluntarily causing hurt to Z by the whole beating and also by each of the blows which make up the whole beating. As per Section 71 of IPC which of the following should be the punishment?

A. A is liable for every blow and should be imprisoned for fifty years one for each blow

B. A is only liable for blows he delivered on the victim

C. A is liable to one punishment for the whole beating

D. A should be separately punished for beating and delivering blows

Ans. C

275. Abetment of any offence, punishable with death or imprisonment for life, if the offence be not committed in consequence of the abetment is dealt under-

A. Section 115 of IPC

B. Section 116 of IPC

C. Section 117 of IPC

D. Section 118 of IPC

Ans. A

276. Abetting the commission of an offence by the public or by more than ten persons is dealt under-

A. Section 117 of IPC

B. Section 118 of IPC

C. Section 119 of IPC

D. Section 120 of IPC

Ans. A

277. Concealing a design to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment, if offence be committed if the offence be not committed is dealt under-

A. Section 119 of IPC

B. Section 120 of IPC

C. Section 121 of IPC

D. Section 122 of IPC

Ans. B

278. In which of the following death sentence is awarded?

A. Waging war against the Government of India

B. Abetting mutiny actually committed

C. Murder

D. All of them

Ans. D

279. Which of the following is true about imprisonment?

A. it is characterised by hard labour

B. it is characterised by confinement to jail

C. is subject to the kind of imprisonment

D. all of them

Ans. D

280. Abetment of an offence, punishable with death or imprisonment for life if an act, which causes harm to be done in consequence of the abetment is dealt under-

A. Section 115 of IPC

B. Section 116 of IPC

C. Section 117 of IPC

D. Section 118 of IPC

Ans. A

281. Abetting the commission of an offence by the public or by more than ten persons is dealt under-

A. Section 117 of IPC

B. Section 118 of IPC

C. Section 119 of IPC

D. Section 120 of IPC

Ans. A

282. What is the minimum term of imprisonment in case of, at the time of attempting robbery or dacoity, the offender is armed with any deadly weapon, he is punished with imprisonment of not less than:

A. four years under Section 397, IPC

B. five years under Section 397, IPC

C. six years under Section 397, IPC

D. seven years under Section 397, IPC

Ans. D

283. Which of the following Section of the IPC has not been omitted?

A. Section 56

B. Section 57

C. Section 58

D. Section 59

Ans. B

284. Which of the following Section of the IPC has been repealed?

A. Section 60

B. Section 61

C. Section 62

D. Both (B) and (C)

Ans. D

285. Which of the following Section of the IPC deals with solitary confinement?

A. Section 71

B. Section 72

C. Section 73

D. Section 74

Ans. C

286. Whoever is a party to a criminal conspiracy other than a criminal conspiracy to commit an offence punishable is dealt under-

A. Section 118B of IPC

B. Section 119B of IPC

C. Section 120B of IPC

D. Section 121B of IPC

Ans. C

287. Conspiring to commit certain offences against the State is dealt under-

A. Section 120A of IPC

B. Section 121A of IPC

C. Section 122A of IPC

D. Section 123A of IPC

Ans. B

288. Concealing with intent to facilitate a design to wage war is dealt under-

A. Section 120 of IPC

B. Section 121 of IPC

C. Section 122 of IPC

D. Section 123 of IPC

Ans. D

289. A is beating Z and Y jumps in to stop the beating. In the process A intentionally strikes Y. As per Section 71 of IPC which of the following should be the punishment?

A. A is liable to one punishment for voluntarily causing hurt to Z and to another for the blow given to Y

B. A is liable to one punishment for voluntarily causing hurt only to Z

C. A is liable to one punishment for voluntarily causing hurt only to Y

D. None of them

Ans. A

290. In a case the accused who was a widower led a homely life with his 12-year-old son, nephew and unmarried daughter. The accused suffered from no insanity. One day the accused accompanied by his son went with an axe in his hand to woods to gather siadi leaves. Sometimes after his nephew who had been working in the field discovered the accused sleeping under a tree with the blood stained axe beside him. There was no trace of the son of the accused. Later his son was found hacked to death. It transpired in evidence that the accused for the time being was seized of a state of mind in which he visualised that a tiger was going to pounce on him and as such mistaking his son as the tiger he cut him into pieces.

A. the accused is lying and is guilty of culpable homicide

B. it was mistake and the accused had no intention of causing the death of his son whom he dearly loved.

C. the accused is not his sound frame of mind

D. none of them

Ans. B

291. A, the captain of a steam vessel, suddenly and without any fault or negligence on his part, finds himself in such a position that before he can stop his vessel, he must inevitably run down a boat B, with twenty to thirty passengers on board, unless he changes the course of his vessel, and that by changing his course, he must incur risk of running down a boat C with only two passengers on board, which he may possibly clear. Here if A alters his course without any intention to run down the boat C and in good faith for the purpose of avoiding the danger to the passengers in boat B. But in the course of this action A runs down boat C.

A. A is guilty

B. A is not guilty of any offence

C. A did not intentionally run down boat C

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. B

292. A accused of murder, alleges that by reason of unsoundness of mind, he did not know the nature of the act.

A. The burden of proof is on the police

B. The burden of proof is on A

C. The burden of proof is on the Court

D. None of them

Ans. B

293. The accused without any provocation caught hold of the legs of a 7 year old child and dashed his head thrice in quick succession resulting in the death of the boy. Immediately after the occurrence the accused ran away. The accused pleaded insanity in defence.

A. the offence falls under Clause (iii) of Section 300, IPC

B. the offence falls under Clause (iv) of Section 300, IPC

C. the offence falls under Clause (v) of Section 300, IPC

D. the offence falls under Clause (vi) of Section 300, IPC

Ans. B

294. A, a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation is likely to cause the death of Z, who suffers under painful complaint, but not intending to cause Z’s death, and intending, in good faith, for Z’s benefit, performs the operation with Z’s consent.

A. A is guilty of culpable homicide

B. A deliberately caused the Z’s death

C. A is not guilty of any offence

D. None of them

Ans. C

295. Assaulting or obstructing public servant when suppressing riot, etc. is dealt under-

A. Section 150 of IPC

B. Section 151 of IPC

C. Section 152 of IPC

D. Section 153 of IPC

Ans. C

296. Knowingly carrying arms in any procession or organizing or holding or taking part in any mass drill or mass training with arms is dealt under-

A. Section 151AA of IPC

B. Section 152AA of IPC

C. Section 153AA of IPC

D. Section 154AA of IPC

Ans. C

297. Harbouring persons hired for an unlawful assembly is dealt under-

A. Section 157 of IPC

B. Section 158 of IPC

C. Section 159 of IPC

D. Section 160 of IPC

Ans. A

298. ‘Sedition’ as offence was held constitutionally valid in Kedar Nath v. State of Bihar, AIR 1962 SC 955 us dealt under-

A. Section 124 A of IPC

B. Section 128 of IPC

C. Section 136 of IPC

D. Section 138 of IPC

Ans. A

299. Public servant disobeying a direction of the law with intent to cause is dealt under-

A. Section 164 of IPC

B. Section 165 of IPC

C. Section 166 of IPC

D. Section 167 of IPC

Ans. C

300. Public servant unlawfully engaging in trade is dealt under-

A. Section 166 of IPC

B. Section 167 of IPC

C. Section 168 of IPC

D. Section 169 of IPC

Ans. C

301. Personating public servant is dealt under-

A. Section 169 of IPC

B. Section 170 of IPC

C. Section 171 of IPC

D. Section 172 of IPC

Ans. B

302. Bribery is dealt under-

A. Section 167 E of IPC

B. Section 168 E of IPC

C. Section 169 E of IPC

D. Section 171 E of IPC

Ans. D

303. Personation at an election is dealt under-

A. Section 171 F of IPC

B. Section 172 F of IPC

C. Section 173 F of IPC

D. Section 174 F of IPC

Ans. A

304. Wantonly giving provocation with intent to cause riot, if rioting be not committed is dealt under-

A. Section 151 of IPC

B. Section 152 of IPC

C. Section 153 of IPC

D. Section 154 of IPC

Ans. C

305. Z is thrown from his horse and is insensible. A, a surgeon, finds out that Z requires to be trepanned. A, not intending Z’s death, but in good faith for Z’s benefit, performs the trepan before Z recovers his power of judging for himself.

A. A has committed offence

B. A has committed no offence

C. A has committed culpable homicide

D. both (A) and (C)

Ans. B

306. Mr. V, an appellant is an owner of a house in City A. The wife of the first respondent Y, was tenant of a part of the first floor in that house. On January 17, 1966, one R a servant of the appellant, called the wife of the first respondent a thief and Halkat. On the following day, the first respondent slapped R on his face which was followed by heated exchange of abusive words and between the first respondent and the appellant’s husband.

The first respondent was annoyed and threw at the appellant’s husband a file of papers. The file did not hit the appellant’s husband, but it hit the elbow of the appellant causing a scratch. The appellant lodged information to the police complaining that the first respondent had committed a house trespass in order to the committing of an offence punishable with imprisonment, had thrown a shoe at her and had slapped her servant R.

During the course of the investigation the appellant and R refused to be examined at a public hospital, claiming that a private medical practitioner had certified that the appellant had suffered from bleeding incision.

As a judge of the case you would:

A. convict the accused under Section 95 of the IPC

B. acquit the accused under Section 95 of the IPC

C. fine the appellant under Section 95 of the IPC

D. Both (A) and the (C)

Ans. C

307. The accused shot dead his father who was abusing his mother and was going to cut her throat. The accused:

A. acted with vindictive feelings

B. acted so due to the imminent danger to his mother’s life

C. is not guilty

D. (B) and (C)

Ans. D

308. Criminal intimidation by anonymous communication or having taken precaution to conceal whence the threat comes is dealt under-

A. Section 506 of IPC

B. Section 507 of IPC

C. Section 508 of IPC

D. Section 509 of IPC

Ans. B

309. The people of the village S having assembled proceeded to cut the bandh. People of the village K resisted but were turned back. Meanwhile a large crowd collected on both sides, armed with lathis, spears and garases. People of K seeing that the people of S were not likely to listen to their remonstrance, proceeded in a body to prevent the cutting of the bandh to drive them away. There was one man from village S who received fatal injuries and died.

A. the action is well within the bounds of the right to private defence of person and property

B. the conviction of the accused under Section 302 of the IPC, cannot be sustained

C. neither (A) nor (B)

D. both (A) and (B)

Ans. D

310. Person for whose benefit or on whose behalf a riot takes place not using all lawful means to prevent it is dealt under-

A. Section 155 of IPC

B. Section 156 of IPC

C. Section 157 of IPC

D. Section 158 of IPC

Ans. A

311. G’s party was engaged in the peaceful pursuit of worship at their own takhat was busy attending to the Puja for the Nepali pilgrim. At that point of time they were not members of an unlawful assembly. It was the party of A who left their place and came to G’s takhat, presumably raising a dispute over the offerings made by the Nepali pilgrim. They came armed with deadly weapons and one of them inflicted a severe blow on the S and G’s side which resulted in his death and others received as many as 27 serious injuries.

A. G’s party exercise the right to self defence

B. Both G and A’s party cannot claim the right to self defence

C. A’s party had full intention of causing harm

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. D

312. Criminal intimidation by anonymous communication or having taken precaution to conceal whence the threat comes is dealt under-

A. Section 506 of IPC

B. Section 507 of IPC

C. Section 508 of IPC

D. Section 509 of IPC

Ans. B

313. Which of the following is true of intent of defraud?

A. a general intention to defraud, without the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person of wrongful loss to another

B. to prove intention of defraud, it is not at all necessary that there should have been some persons defrauded, or who possibly might have been defrauded by his act

C. the word defraud is of double meaning

D. all of them

Ans: D

314. The word ‘document’ as per Section 29 of IPC includes any matter expressed or described upon by any substance:

A. by means of letters, figures or marks only

B. by more than one of those means intended to be used, or which may used, as evidence of that matter

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. none of them

Ans: C

315. Which of the following can be called a ‘document’ as per Section 29 of IPC?

A. banker’s cheque

B. power of attorney

C. map

D. all of them

Ans: D

316. Which of the following conditions are necessary to fulfil the requirements of Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code?

A. the person must be present on the scene of occurrence

B. there must a prior concert or a pre-arranged plan

C. either (A) or (B)

D. both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

317. Making preparation to commit dacoity is dealt under

A. Section 398 of IPC

B. Section 399 of IPC

C. Section 400 of IPC

D. Section 401 of IPC

Ans: B

318. The three accused armed with firearms and Accused 1 with lathi came to the shot of the incident for the purpose of avenging the old enmity. It was alleged that it was on the exhortation made by the Accused 1, not to spare the deceased that the other accused started firing at the deceased. It was held that when all the accused had reached the place of incident for the purpose of avenging the old enmity nurtured by them should they wait for Accused 1 to make exhortation to use the words “don’t allow him to flee and don’t spare him this time.”. Which of the following judgment is the correct judgment regarding the mentioned case?

A. apart from Accused 1 all others were convicted u/ss. 302/34

B. all of them were convicted u/ss. 302/34

C. Accused 1 was accordingly acquitted, as no common intention could be attributed to him.

D. both (A) and (C)

Ans: D

319. Unlawful compulsory labour is dealt under

A. Section 371 of IPC

B. Section 372 of IPC

C. Section 373 of IPC

D. Section 374 of IPC

Ans: D

320. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled for conviction on circumstantial evidence?

A. the circumstances from which the conclusion is to be drawn should be fully established and not “may be established”

B. the circumstances must be of a conclusive nature and tendency

C. it should exclude every possible hypothesis except the one to be proved

D. all of them

Ans: D

321. Selling or letting to hire a minor for purposes of prostitution, etc is dealt under

A. Section 371 of IPC

B. Section 372 of IPC

C. Section 373 of IPC

D. Section 374 of IPC

Ans: B

322. Which of the following creates a new offence?

A. Section 34 of the IPC

B. Section 35 and Section 36 of the IPC

C. Section 37 of the IPC

D. None of them

Ans: D

333. A, a jailor, has the charge of Z, a prisoner. A, intending to cause Z’s death, illegally omits to supply Z with food; in consequence of which Z is much reduced in strength, but the starvation is not sufficient to cause his death. A is dismissed from his office, B succeeds him. B, without collution with A, illegally omits to supply Z with food, knowing that he is likely thereby to cause Z’s death. Z dies. Which of the following judgment applies to both A and B under Section 37 of the IPC?

A. A is only guilty of an attempt to commit murder while B is guilty of murder

B. A is guilty of murder while B is guilty of an attempt to murder

C. Both A and B are guilty of murder

D. Both A and B are guilty of attempt to murder

Ans: A

334. The act voluntarily done in effect and substance in Section 39, IPC means:

A. act done intentionally

B. act done with the knowledge of end result being crime

C. act done when the doer has a reason to believe that the actus reus would be an offence

D. all of them

Ans: D

335. Abetment of any offence, if the person abetted does the act with a different intention from that of the abettor is dealt under

A. Section 109 of IPC

B. Section 110 of IPC

C. Section 111 of IPC

D. Section 112 of IPC

Ans: B

336. The accused attacked the victim with a spear and the others inflicted blows on legs and arms with lathies.

A. only those accused who used lathies are guilty

B. only the accused who used the spear is guilty

C. each accused must be convicted for the offence of which he is actually found to be guilty

D. all the accused are guilty

Ans: C

337. Which of the following is the test to check whether an offence involves moral turpitude?

A. check whether the act leading to a conviction is such as could shock the moral conscience of the society in general

B. check whether the motive leading to the act was a base one

C. check whether on account of the act having been committed the perpetrator is to be looked down in the society as a depraved man

D. all of them

Ans: D

338. The accused persons noticed someone stealing the crops grown by the accused and beat the thief to death.

A. IPC Section 304 read with IPC Section 34 is applicable in this case

B. IPC Section 304 Pt. II read with IPC Section 35 is application in this case

C. IPC Section 38 is applicable in this case

D. IPC Section 308 is applicable in this case

Ans: C

339. A sets fire, by night, to an inhabited house in a large town, for the purpose of facilitating a robbery and thus causes the death of person.

A. A did not intend to cause any death. It was an accident

B. A is guilty of robbery only

C. If A knew that he was likely to cause he would have done so voluntarily to carry out the robbery

D. None of them

Ans: C

340. Abetment of any offence, when an effect is caused by the act abetted different from that intended by the abettor is dealt under

A. Section 110 of IPC

B. Section 111 of IPC

C. Section 112 of IPC

D. Section 113 of IPC

Ans: D

341. A boy of 13 committed rape on a child 2 years. The accused should be awarded

A. one year R.I. with fine of Rs. 2000

B. three year R.I with fine of Rs. 5000

C. only one year R.I.

D. only fine of Rs. 5000

Ans: A

342. Abetment of any offence, if abettor is present when offence is committed dealt under

A. Section 114 of IPC

B. Section 115 of IPC

C. Section 116 of IPC

D. Section 117 of IPC

Ans: A

343. Concealing a design to commit an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life, if the offence be committed is dealt under

A. Section 117 of IPC

B. Section 118 of IPC

C. Section 119 of IPC

D. Section 120 of IPC

Ans: B

344. A public servant concealing a design to commit an offence which it is his duty to prevent if the offence be committed dealt under

A. Section 117 of IPC

B. Section 118 of IPC

C. Section 119 of IPC

D. Section 120 of IPC

Ans: C

345. Which of the following punishment an offender is liable to under the provision of Section 53, IPC

A. Death and imprisonment for life

B. Imprisonment and fine

C. Forfeiture of property

D. all of them

Ans: D

346. Which of the following punishment have been abolished?

A. Death penalty

B. Whipping

C. Detention in reformatories

D. Both (B) and (C)

Ans: D

347. A public servant concealing a design to commit an offence which it is his duty to prevent if the offence be punishable with death or imprisonment for life is dealt under

A. Section 118 of IPC

B. Section 119 of IPC

C. Section 120 of IPC

D. Section 121 of IPC

Ans: B

348. A public servant concealing a design to commit an offence which it is his duty to prevent if the offence be not committed is dealt under

A. Section 116 of IPC

B. Section 117 of IPC

C. Section 118 of IPC

D. Section 119 of IPC

Ans: D

349. Abetment of an offence punishable with imprisonment, if the abettor or the person abetted be a public servant, whose duty is to prevent the offence is dealt under

A. Section 116 of IPC

B. Section 117 of IPC

C. Section 118 of IPC

D. Section 119 of IPC

Ans: A

350. Which of the following is false of Section 67 of the IPC?

A. the imprisonment so awarded shall be simple

B. fine not exceeding Rs. 50 – term not exceeding 4 months

C. fine exceeding Rs. 100 to any amount – term not exceeding 6 months

D. the term shall not in any case be in excess of the Magistrate’s powers under S. 32 of Cr. PC

Ans: B

351. Criminal conspiracy to commit an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment for a term of 2 years or upwards is dealt under

A. Section 119B of IPC

B. Section 120B of IPC

C. Section 121B of IPC

D. Section 122B of IPC

Ans: B

352. Waging or attempting to wage war, or abetting the waging of war, against the Government of India is dealt under

A. Section 121 of IPC

B. Section 122 of IPC

C. Section 123 of IPC

D. Section 124 of IPC

Ans: A

353. Collecting arms, etc, with the intention of waging war against the Government of India is dealt under

A. Section 120 of IPC

B. Section 121 of IPC

C. Section 122 of IPC

D. Section 123 of IPC

Ans: C

354. Assaulting President Governor, etc, with intent to compel or restrain the exercise of any lawful power is dealt under

A. Section 123 of IPC

B. Section 124 of IPC

C. Section 125 of IPC

D. Section 126 of IPC

Ans: B

355. A sees Z commit what appears to A to be a murder. A, in the exercise to the best of his judgment exerted in good faith, of the power which the law gives to all persons of apprehending murderers in the act, seizes Z, in order to bring Z before the proper authorities.

A. A has committed an offence, while Z was acting in self-defence

B. Both A and Z committed an offence.

C. A has committed no offence, though it may turn out that Z was acting in self-defence

D. None of them

Ans: C

356. A is at work with a hatchet; he head flies off and kills who is standing by

A. A’s act is excusable

B. A’s act is unpardonable

C. A’s act is one of deliberate act

D. None of them

Ans: A

357. A, in a great fire pulls down houses in order to prevent the conflagration from spreading. He does this with the intention in good faith of saving human life or property.

A. A is not guilty

B. A is guilty

C. The action was intentional

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans: A

358. In a case the accused was alleged to kill four children at a time. He raised the plea of insanity.

A. the plea is to be reject outright

B. the plea is to be considered only after the prosecution succeeds in proving the case against the accused

C. the plea is must be considered putting aside the arguments of the prosecution

D. None of them

Ans: B

359. A and Z agrees to fence each other for amusement. In the course of fencing, without any foul play, A hurts Z.

A. A is guilty of offence

B. Both are guilty for indulging in a violent game

C. A is not guilty of any offence

D. None of them

Ans: C

360. A in good faith for his child’s benefit without the consent of his child cut for the stone by a surgeon knowing it to be likely that the operation will cause the child’s death, but not intending to cause the child’s death.

A. A is guilty as he acted without the consent of his child attracts punishment as per Section 89 of IPC

B. A is guilty as he knowingly caused the death of his child and attracts punishment Section 89 of IPC

C. A is within the exception of Section 89 of IPC as inasmuch his object was the cure of his child

D. None of them

Ans: C

361. Wantonly giving provocation with intent to cause riot, if rioting be committed is dealt under

A. Section 152 of IPC

B. Section 153 of IPC

C. Section 154 of IPC

D. Section 155 of IPC

Ans: B

362. Imputations, assertions prejudicial to national integration is dealt under

A. Section 153B of IPC

B. Section 154B of IPC

C. Section 155B of IPC

D. Section 156B of IPC

Ans: A

363. Agent of owner or occupier for whose benefit a riot is committed not using all lawful means to prevent it is dealt under

A. Section 154 of IPC

B. Section 155 of IPC

C. Section 156 of IPC

D. Section 157 of IPC

Ans: C

364. Being hired to take part in an unlawful assembly or riot is dealt under

A. Section 156 of IPC

B. Section 157 of IPC

C. Section 158 of IPC

D. Section 159 of IPC

Ans: C

365. Committing affray is dealt under

A. Section 159 of IPC

B. Section 160 of IPC

C. Section 161 of IPC

D. Section 162 of IPC

Ans: B

366. Public servant framing an incorrect document with intent to cause injury is dealt under

A. Section 166 of IPC

B. Section 167 of IPC

C. Section 168 of IPC

D. Section 169 of IPC

Ans: B

367. Public servant unlawfully buying or bidding for property is dealt under

A. Section 169 of IPC

B. Section 170 of IPC

C. Section 171 of IPC

D. Section 172 of IPC

Ans: A

368. Wearing garb or carrying token used by public servant with fraudulent intent is dealt under

A. Section 168 of IPC

B. Section 169 of IPC

C. Section 171 of IPC

D. Section 172 of IPC

Ans: C

369. Undue influence at an election is dealt under

A. Section 168 F of IPC

B. Section 169 F of IPC

C. Section 170 F of IPC

D. Section 171 F of IPC

Ans: D

370. Criminal intimidation and if threat be to cause death or grievous hurt, etc is dealt under

A. Section 505 of IPC

B. Section 506 of IPC

C. Section 507 of IPC

D. Section 508 of IPC

Ans: B

371. A disabled man having only one hand was attacked by a strong man by bamboos. The disabled man, a tea garden labourer fought for his life and hit the aggressor by the pen-knife resulting in his death.

A. the man acted was well within the bounds of his right to self defence

B. the man exceeded the bounds of the right to self defence

C. the man is guilty of manslaughter

D. both (B) and (C)

Ans: A

372. Owner or occupier of land not giving information of riot, etc is dealt under

A. Section 152 of IPC

B. Section 153 of IPC

C. Section 154 of IPC

D. Section 155 of IPC

Ans: C

373. Two parties A and B gather together for free fight in order to settle a land dispute and in the process end up inflicting injuries on one another. Here:

A. the plea of private defence of property is valid

B. the plea of self defence is valid

C. the plea of private defence of any kind is invalid

D. none of them

Ans: C

374. In a certain case in revision by accused against conviction and sentence under Section 279, IPC, the provisional Court on maintaining conviction added a direction to RTO to cancel his license. It was held that it is enhancement of sentence and no such enhancement is legal without notice to accused.

A. Md. Shabir v. State of Maharashtra, 1978

B. Ranji Lai Modi v. State of U.P. Air 1957 Section 620

C. Mithu v. State of Punjab, AIR 1983 Section 473

D. Gian Kaur v. States of Punjab, Air 1996 Section 946

Ans: A

375. Insult intended to provoke breach of the peace is dealt under

A. Section 500 of IPC

B. Section 501 of IPC

C. Section 502 of IPC

D. Section 504 of IPC

Ans: D

376. ‘S’ is found in possession of property reasonably suspected to be stolen by him and is arrested by ‘P’, a police officer. ‘S’ is excited to sudden and violent passion by the arrest and fires at him but kills ‘D’ who was standing near ‘P’, neither intending nor knowing himself to be likely to kill ‘D’. This is:

(a) culpable homicide not amounting to murder, because ‘S’ had been deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation

(b) murder, because provocation was given by a thing done by a public servant in lawful discharge of his powers

(d) none of these.

Ans. (b)

377. Consider the following statements. To constitute abetment, it is:

(a) necessary that the act abetted must be committed

(b) not necessary that the act abetted must be committed

Which of the statements given above represent(s) the correct position of law?

(a) Only (b)

(b) Both (b) and (c)

(d) Only (c).

Ans. (a)

388. Consider the following statements. To constitute abetment, it is:

(a) every murder is culpable homicide

(b) every culpable homicide is murder

(d) every extortion is robbery

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) (a) and (c)

(b) (b) and (c)

(d) (b) and (d).

Ans. (a)

389. With respect to the difference between kidnapping from lawful guardianship and abduction which of the following statements is correct:

(a) Kidnapping is committed only in respect of a minor or a person of unsound mind. Abduction is committed in respect of a person of any age.

(b) In former, the person kidnapped is removed out of lawful guardianship. Abduction has reference exclusively to the person abducted.

(c) In kidnapping, consent of the person kidnapped or enticed is immaterial. In abduction, consent of the person moved, if freely and voluntarily given, condones abduction.

(d) All these.

Ans. (d)

390. ‘A’ and ‘Z’, both adults, agree to engage each other in fencing for amusement. In course of such fencing, without any foul play, ‘A’ causes a superficial hurt to “Z”. Here, ‘A’:

(a) is guilty of causing hurt by sharp edged weapon as he attacked ‘Z’

(b) is not guilty as there is an implied consent on the part of ‘Z’ to suffer such harm

(d) both (1) and (3).

Ans. (b)

391. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code codifies, in the field of criminal law, the maxim: ‘de minimis non curat lex’:

(a) Section 85, IPC

(b) Section 88, IPC

(d) Section 96, IPC.

Ans. (c)

392. The doctrine of Necessity has been elaborately considered in the landmark decision of:

(a) R. v. McNaghten, (1843) 8 Eng Rep 718

(b) Basdev v. State of PEPSU, AIR 1956 SC 488

(d) Bimbadar Pradhan v. State of Orissa, AIR 1956 SC 469.

Ans. (c)

393. H takes property belonging to S out of the possession of S in good faith, believing at the time when he takes it, that the property belongs to himself. Later on realizing his mistake, H continues to appropriate the property to his own use. H has committed the offence of:

(a) Robbery

(b) Criminal breach of trust

(d) Cheating.

Ans. (c)

394. Under Section 44 of I.P.C. the term ‘Injury’ means any harm:

(a) Illegally caused to a person in body and mind

(b) Illegally caused to a person in body and property

(d) Illegally caused to a person in body, mind and reputation.

Ans. (c)

395. Under the Indian Penal Code, an act may be an offence under the Code, but for the existence of a justification which may form a defence. Which of the following is not such a defence:

(a) Act done by a child under seven years of age

(b) Act done by a person of unsound mind

(d) Act done outside the territorial limits of India.

Ans. (d)

396. Consider the following statements:

(1) ‘A’ willfully by a misrepresentation misled a police officer to arrest ‘B’ instead of ‘C’

(2) ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C’, ‘B’ refuses to do so

(3) ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘D’, ‘B’ stabs ‘D’. ‘D’ survives from wound

Which of the above constitute the offence of abetment?

(a) (1), (2) and (3)

(b) (1) and (3) only

(d) (1) and (2) only.

Ans. (a)

397. A and B both are of 16 years of age. A entices B for marriage and takes her to another city. What offence has been committed by A:

(a) A has committed kidnapping

(b) A has committed no offence as B has gone with her own consent

(d) A is himself minor. Hence A has commit no offence.

Ans. (a)

398. Assertion (A): The essence of joint liability under section 149 of the IPC is that the criminal act must have been done with a view to fulfill the common object of an unlawful assembly. Reason (R): Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other members of that assembly liable:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (c)

399. Assertion (A): In a criminal trial, the accused and the defendant mean the same thing Reason (R): It depends which way you look, for the prosecution a person is accused, for the person he is defendant against the accusation:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) A is false, R is true.

Ans. (a)

400. Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind and not knowing the nature of the act, attacks Y, who in self-defense and in order to ward off the attack hits him thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an offence. Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense against X under the Indian Penal Code:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true

Ans. (a)

401. Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind and not knowing the nature of the act, attacks Y, who in self-defence and in order to ward off the attack, hits him thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an offence. Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense against X under Section 98 of the Indian Penal Code:

(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (a)

402. The paddy lands of A and D lie adjacent to each other. The prosecution case that when D was deepening the channel on the boundary of his own land, the accused A pursuant to an altercation hit D hard on head by a spade that proved fatal.

A. the fact that the body of D lay on the land of A or the existence of any altercation between the two is not sufficient to proof the exercise of the right of self defence by A

B. the complainant party is in possession of the land and the accused party taking the law in hands attacks the complainant, does not entitle the accused A to right of private defence

C. Neither (A) nor (B)

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

403. False statement, rumour, etc, circulated with intent to cause mutiny or offence against the public peace is dealt under

A. Section 505 of IPC

B. Section 300 of IPC

C. Section 299 of IPC

D. Section 351 of IPC

Ans: A

404. A enters by night which he is legally entitled to enter. Z, in good faith mistaking A to be a burglar attacks him.

A. Z has no offence as he acts under misconception

B. Z is guilty

C. A has the same right of private defence against Z under the same circumstance

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans: D

405. A person with fraudulent intention going through the ceremony of being married knowing that he is not thereby lawfully married is dealt under

A. Section 493 of IPC

B. Section 494 of IPC

C. Section 495 of IPC

D. Section 496 of IPC

Ans: D

406. A is attacked by a mob who attempt to murder him. He cannot effectually exercise his right of private defence without firing on the mob, and he cannot fire without risk of harming young children who are mingled with the crowd.

A. A must not use his right to private defence

B. A will be guilty of manslaughter if he fires on the mob

C. A will not be committing any offence if he has to fire on the mob

D. None of them

Ans: C

407. Illegal payments in connection with elections is dealt under

A. Section 169 H of IPC

B. Section 170 H of IPC

C. Section 171 H of IPC

D. Section 172 H of IPC

Ans: C

408. Absconding to avoid service of summons or other proceeding from a public servant is dealt under

A. Section 172 of IPC

B. Section 173 of IPC

C. Section 174 of IPC

D. Section 175 of IPC

Ans: A

409. Not obeying a legal order to attend at a certain place in person or by agent, or departing therefrom without authority is dealt under

A. Section 174 of IPC

B. Section 175 of IPC

C. Section 176 of IPC

D. Section 177 of IPC

Ans: A

410. Intentionally omitting to produce a document to a public servant by a person legally bound to produce or deliver such document is dealt under

A. Section 175 of IPC

B. Section 176 of IPC

C. Section 177 of IPC

D. Section 178 of IPC

Ans: A

411. Intentionally omitting to give notice or information to a public servant by a person legally bound to give such notice or information is dealt under

A. Section 174 of IPC

B. Section 175 of IPC

C. Section 176 of IPC

D. Section 177 of IPC

Ans: C

412. Intentional omitting to give notice or information to a public servant by a person legally bound to give such notice or information if the notice or information is required by an order passed under sub-section (1) of section 356 of this Code is dealt under

A. Section 176 of IPC

B. Section 177 of IPC

C. Section 178 of IPC

D. Section 179 of IPC

Ans: A

89. Knowingly furnishing false information to a public servant, if the information required respects the commission of an offence etc is dealt under

A. Section 169 of IPC

B. Section 170 of IPC

C. Section 177 of IPC

D. Section 172 of IPC

Ans: C

414. Being legally bound to state truth and refusing to answer questions is dealt under

A. Section 179 of IPC

B. Section 180 of IPC

C. Section 181 of IPC

D. Section 182 of IPC

Ans: A

415. Knowingly stating to a public servant on oath as true that which is false is dealt under

A. Section 179 of IPC

B. Section 180 of IPC

C. Section 181 of IPC

D. Section 182 of IPC

Ans: C

416. Resistance to the taking of property by the lawful authority of a public servant is dealt under

A. Section 183 of IPC

B. Section 184 of IPC

C. Section 185 of IPC

D. Section 186 of IPC

Ans: A

417. Bidding by a person under a legal in capacity to purchase it for property at a lawfully authorized sale or bidding without intending to perform the obligation incurred thereby is dealt under

A. Section 183 of IPC

B. Section 184 of IPC

C. Section 185 of IPC

D. Section 186 of IPC

Ans: C

418. Preventing the service or the affixing of any summons of notice or the removal of it when it has been affixed or preventing a proclamation is dealt under

A. Section 171 of IPC

B. Section 172 of IPC

C. Section 173 of IPC

D. Section 174 of IPC

Ans: C

419. Failure to appear at specified place and specified time as required by a proclamation published under sub-section (1) of section 82 of this Code is dealt under

A. Section 172-AofIPC

B. Section 173-AofIPC

C. Section 174-AofIPC

D. Section 175-A of IPC

Ans: C

420. Which of the following not true of Section 75, IPC?

A. it provides for special maximum sentence

B. it provides for a minimum sentence

C. it is not incumbent in every case of a previous conviction that such conviction should be taken into account.

D. all of them

Ans: B

421. Which of the following may be said to be non-compos mentis (not of sound mind)?

A. drunk

B. Made non compos by illness

C. lunatic or a madman

D. all of them

Ans: D

422. To invoke the defence of insanity, which of the following must be clearly proved at the time of committing the act?

I. the accused was labouring under defect of reason

II. from disease of the mind

III. does not know the nature and quality of the act he was doing

IV. if he did know, he did not know what he was doing was wrong

A. I and IV

B. I and III

C. II, III and IV

D. I, II, III and IV

Ans: D

423. Assault or use of criminal force otherwise than on grave provocation is dealt under

A. Section 349 of IPC

B. Section 350 of IPC

C. Section 351 of IPC

D. Section 352 of IPC

Ans: D

424. Insanity is a valid defence on a charge of commission of an act prima facie criminal because of want of:

A. mens rea

B. actus reus

C. repondeat superior

D. none of them

Ans: A

425. Printing or enegrtacing matter knowing it to be defamatory against the president or the Vice- President or the Governor of a State or Administrator of a Union territory or a Minister in respect of his conduct in the discharge of his public functions when instituted upon a complaint made by the public prosecutor and Printing or engraving matter knowing it to be defamatory in any other case is dealt under

A. Section 500 of IPC

B. Section 501 of IPC

C. Section 502 of IPC

D. Section 504 of IPC

Ans: B

426. Which of the following is true of people suffering from delirium tremens?

A. they are dangerous to themselves and others

B. they see various objects lying around or crawling about

C. he cannot be criminally held responsible for his acts

D. all of them

Ans: D

427. Attempt to commit robbery or dacoity when armed with deadly weapons is dealt under

A. Section 398 of IPC

B. Section 399 of IPC

C. Section 400 of IPC

D. Section 401 of IPC

Ans: A

428. In which of the following case voluntary drunkenness can be an excuse:

A. when the state of intoxication is such that the accused is incapable of forming the specific intent essential to constitute the crime

B. habitual drunkenness which results in a diseased condition of the mind that the accused is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that he is doing is either wrong to contrary to the law

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. Either (A) or (B)

Ans: C

429. In which of the following way Section 88 differs from Section 87?

A. under it any harm except death may be inflicted

B. the age of the person is not mentioned

C. the age of the consenting party must be at least twelve years

D. both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

430. Theft is dealt under

A. Section 376 of IPC

B. Section 377 of IPC

C. Section 378 of IPC

D. Section 379 of IPC

Ans: D

431. Which of the following is not a true consent as described in Section 90, IPC?

I. by a person under the fear of injury

II. by a person under a misconception

III. by a person of sound mind

IV.by a person who is intoxicated

V. by a person who is under twelve years of age

A. I, II

B. Ill

C. IV, V

D. I, II, IV, V

Ans: D

432. Harm in Section 94, IPC means:

A. injurious mental reaction

B. infectious mental disease

C. injurious mental condition

D. all of them

Ans: A

433. Which of the following is not pardonable under Section 94, IPC?

A. murder

B. offences against the state punishable with death

C. robbery

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

444. Theft by clerk or servant of property in possession of master or employer is dealt under

A. Section 380 of IPC

B. Section 381 of IPC

C. Section 382 of IPC

D. Section 383 of IPC

Ans: B

445. As per the Supreme Court the right of private defence is:

A. defensive right circumscribed by the statute

B. availed in the favour of the aggressor

C. available only when the circumstances clearly justifies it

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

446. On which of the general principle the Supreme Court held that the right to private defence rests?

A. where a crime is endeavoured to be committed by force, it is lawful to repeal that force in self defence

B. that a person could only claim the right to use force after he had sustained a serious injury by an aggressive wrongful assault

C. it is to protect the aggressor

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

447. A, a public officer is authorised by a warrant from a Court of Justice to apprehend Z. B, knowing that fact and also that C is not Z, wilfully represents to A that C is Z, and they intentionally causes A to apprehend C. Here:

A. A abets by instigation the apprehension of C

B. B abets by instigation the apprehension of C

C. B abets by instigation the apprehension of A

D. C abets by instigation the apprehension of Z

Ans: B

448. Kidnapping or obtaining the custody of a minor in order that such minor may be employed or used for purposes of begging is dealt under

A. Section 363A of IPC

B. Section 364A of IPC

C. Section 365A of IPC

D. Section 366A of IPC

Ans: A

449. Right of private defence is not available:

A. to the aggressor

B. to the person who is attacked

C. to the aggressor against an act done in private defence by the person attacked

D. only (a) & (c) are correct.

Ans. D

450. In a case of free fight between two parties:

A. right of private defence is available to both the parties

B. right of private defence is available to individuals against individual

C. no right of private defence is available to either party

D. right to private defence is available only to one party.

Ans. C

451. Under section 99, the right of private defence is:

A. not available at all against public servants engaged in the discharge of their lawful duties

B. available under all circumstances against public servants engaged in the discharge of their lawful duties

C. available against public servants only when their acts cause reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt

D. available against public servants only when their acts cause reasonable apprehension of damage to property.

Ans. C

552. Right to private defence under section 99:

A. extends to causing more harm than is necessary for the purpose of defence

B. does not extend to causing more harm than is necessary for the purpose of defence

C. does not extend to causing the harm necessary for the purpose of defence

D. restricts the harm caused to be less than the one necessary for the purpose of defence.

Ans. B

453. Right of private defence extends to causing death, under the circumstances laid down in:

A. sections 100 & 101 of IPC

B. sections 101 & 102 of IPC

C. sections 102 & 103 of IPC

D. sections 100 & 103 of IPC.

Ans. D

454. Right of private defence of the body extends to causing death has been dealt with under:

A. section 100 of IPC

B. section 101 of IPC

C. section 102 of IPC

D. section 103 of IPC.

Ans. A

455. Right of private defence of property extending to causing death has been dealt with under:

A. section 103 of IPC

B. section 102 of IPC

C. section 101 of IPC

D. section 100 of IPC.

Ans. A

456. In cases of assault causing reasonable apprehension of death or of grievous hurt, the right of private defence extends voluntarily:

A. causing grievous hurt

B. causing death

C. causing any harm other than death

D. causing any harm other than death or grievous hurt.

Ans. B

457. In cases of assault with intention of committing rape or of gratifying unnatural lust, the right of private defence extends voluntarily:

A. causing any harm including death

B. causing any harm other than death

C. causing any harm other than grievous hurt

D. both (b) & (c).

Ans. A

458. In cases of kidnapping & abduction the right of private defence extends voluntarily causing:

A. any harm other than death

B. any harm other than death & grievous hurt

C. any harm including death

D. both (a) & (b).

Ans. C

459. In cases of robbery or dacoity, the right of private defence extends voluntarily causing:

A. any harm including death

B. any harm other than death

C. any harm other than grievous hurt

D. both (b) & (c).

Ans. A

460. Where a wrong doer commits house breaking by night, the right to private defence extends to voluntarily causing:

A. any harm other than death

B. any harm including death

C. any harm other than death and grievous hurt

D. either (a) or (c).

Ans. B

461. Where a wrong leads to mischief by fire on a building used as a human dwelling or a place for custody of property the right of private defence extends voluntarily causing:

A. any harm including death

B. any harm other than death

C. any harm other than death & grievous hurt

D. either (b) or (c).

Ans. A

462. Under section 102 of IPC the right to private defence of the body:

A. commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises and continues as long as that apprehension continues

B. commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises and continues even after that apprehension ceases

C. commences only when the assault is actually done & continues during the period of assault

D. commences only when the assault is actually done & continues after the assailant has left.

Ans. A

463. Under section 105 of IPC, the right of private defence of property in cases of theft commences when a reasonable apprehension of danger to the property commences and:

A. continues till the offender has effected his retreat with the property

B. continues till the assistance of public authorities is obtained

C. continues till the property has been recovered

D. all the above.

Ans. D

464. Section 106 of IPC extends the right of private defence, in case of apprehension of death, to causing:

A. any harm other than death to any innocent person

B. any harm other than grievous hurt to any innocent person

C. any harm including death to any innocent person

D. none of the above.

Ans. C

465. Chapter V of Indian Penal Code deals with:

A. abetment

B. attempt

C. elections

D. religion.

Ans. A

466. Right of private defence is not available:

A. against any act which in itself is not an offence

B. against any act which is not legal wrong

C. against any act which is a moral wrong

D. all the above.

Ans. D

467. Section 97 of IPC extends the right of private defence of property, to the offence of:

A. cheating

B. misappropriation

C. theft & robbery

D. criminal breach of trust.

Ans. C

468. Abetment under section 107 of IPC can be constituted by:

A. instigation

B. conspiracy

C. intentional aid

D. all the above.

Ans. D

469. Abettor is a person:

A. who commits the offence

B. who instigates the commission of offence

C. against whom the offence is committed

D. who is innocent.

Ans. B

470. For abetment:

A. it is necessary that the act abetted should be committed successfully

B. it is necessary that the act abetted should be committed though unsuccessfully

C. it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed

D. both (a) & (b).

Ans. C

471. For abetment:

A. it is necessary that the person abetted should be capable of committing on offence under the law

B. it is necessary that the person abetted should have the same guilty intention

C. it is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable of committing an offence under the law or should have the same guilty intention

D. both (a) & (b).

Ans. C

472. Under Indian Penal Code, there can be abetment to:

A. a person of unsound mind

B. an infant

C. both (a) & (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. C

473. Abetment of an offence is:

A. always an offence

B. never an offence

C. may be an offence depending on the circumstances but not always

D. may not be an offence depending on the circumstances.

Ans. A

474. If the act abetted is committed in consequence, the abettor is punishable with punishment provided for the offence:

A. if the offence committed is the same as abetted

B. if the offence committed is different from the one abetted, for the offence committed

C. if the doer commits the offence with different intention than the abettor

D. all the above.

Ans. D

475. Abetment by instigation may be:

A. by words spoken

B. by letters

C. by conduct

D. all the above.

Ans. D

476. Abetment is complete as soon as:

A. the abettor has incited another to commit an offence

B. the person instigated has done some overt act towards the commission of the offence

C. the offence abetted has been committed

D. both (b) & (c) above.

Ans. A

477. X ordered his employee Y to beat Z. Y refuses. Now:

A. X has committed abetment & Y has committed assault

B. X has committed abetment & Y has committed no offence

C. X & Y both have committed no offence

D. X has committed no offence but Y has committed offence of subordination.

Ans. B

478. No criminal liability for abetment arises:

A. if the act abetted is an offence

B. if the act abetted is not an offence

C. if the act abetted is morally wrong

D. both (b) & (c).

Ans. D

479. Conspiracy has been defined as an agreement between two or more persons to do an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means, under:

A. section 120B of IPC

B. section 120A of IPC

C. section 120 of IPC

D. section 121A of IPC.

Ans. B

480. For conspiracy, the minimum number of persons required is:

A. one

B. five

C. two

D. no minimum requirement.

Ans. C

481. Under criminal conspiracy:

A. mere agreement is made an offence even if no step is taken to carry out that agreement

B. mere agreement is not made an offence unless a step is taken to carry out that agreement

C. both (a) & (b) are correct.

D. neither (a) nor (b) is correct.

Ans. A

482. Conspiracy to wage war against Government of India has been dealt with under:

A. section 120 of IPC

B. section 120A of IPC

C. section 120B of IPC

D. section 121A of IPC.

Ans. D

483. Sedition has been defined as bringing or attempt to bring hatred or contempt, or exciting or attempt to excite disaffection towards the Government established by law in India, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs or visible representation or otherwise, under:

A. section 120 of IPC

B. section 120A of IPC

C. section 121A of IPC

D. section 124A of IPC.

Ans. D

484. Disaffection within section 124A of IPC includes:

A. disloyalty and all feelings of enmity

B. disapprobation of the measures of the Government not exciting any contempt

C. disapprobation of the administrative measures

D. all the above.

Ans. A

485. For an unlawful assembly under section 141 of IPC, the minimum number of persons required is:

A. five

B. seven

C. ten

D. twenty.

Ans. A

486. For an assembly to be unlawful, must have a common object of the kind specified in:

A. section 141 of IPC

B. section 140 of IPC

C. section 142 of IPC

D. section 144 of IPC.

Ans. A

487. Which of the following is not specified to be the common object of an assembly to make it unlawful, under section 141 of IPC:

A. overawing the Government or its officers

B. resistance to legal process

C. forcible possession or dispossession of property

D. none of the above.

Ans. D

488. In which recent case the meaning and rationale of “preventive detection” is being discussed in the Constitution or statute:

A. State of Maharashtra v. Bhalurao Runjabrao Gawande

B. Rajinder Arora v. Union of India.

C. Naresh Kumar Goel v. Union of India

D. A.K. Ray v. Union of India.

Ans. A

489. Article 21 now protects the right to life and personal liberty of citizens not only from executive action but also from legislative action. The case is:

A. Minerva Mills

B. A.K. Gopalan

C. Maneka Gandhi

D. Keshvananda Bharti.

Ans. C

490. Under Indian Constitution which is not a specific ground on which the State can place restriction on freedom of religion:

A. public order

B. morality

C. social Justice

D. health.

Ans. C

491. Arrange the decisions of the Supreme Court on Fundamental Right relating to personal liberty in correct chronological sequence:

(1) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI

(2) A.DM fabalpur v. Shiv Kant Shukla

(3) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras

Codes –

A. 3, 2, 1.

B. 2, 1, 3

C. 2, 3, 1

D. 1, 2, 3.

Ans. A

492. An accused person has been provided with the following protections by Constitution of India:

(1) ex post facto law

(2) safeguard against arrest and detention

(3) double jeopardy

Codes –

A. 1, 3, 2

B. 1, 2, 3

C. 3, 1, 2

D. 2, 1, 3

Ans. A

493. Two persons namely J and N who received different kinds of injuries by different kinds of weapons succumbed to the injuries and another person Y was seriously wounded on receiving different kinds of injuries. Seven persons were accused in this case. The defence plea was that only two accused persons were there along with the victim who attacked the two accused persons who caused death of the victim in self defence. Which of the following Court gave the appropriate verdict?

A. Court A overruled the plea of self defence convicted the seven accused persons.

B. Court B reversed the Court A’s decision and accepted the plea of private defence

C. Court C reversed the Court B’s decision and convicted all the seven persons

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. D

494. Z under the influence of madness attempts to kill A.

A. Z is not guilty

B. A has the same right of private defence as Z

C. Z is guilty

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans. D

495. Same offence with concealment of the former marriage from the person with whom subsequent marriage is contracted is dealt under-

A. Section 493 of IPC

B. Section 494 of IPC

C. Section 495 of IPC

D. Section 496 of IPC

Ans. C

496. Adultery is dealt under-

A. Section 497 of IPC

B. Section 498 of IPC

C. Section 498A of IPC

D. Section 500 of IPC

Ans. A

497. The accused discharged the first shot as he was about to be assaulted after his father had been struck to death. The assailants had come armed with both sticks and battle- axes. The only weapon in the hand of the accused was a gun.

A. the accused rightly exercised the right of private defence

B. the ingredients of Section 106, IPC are fully satisfied

C. neither (A) nor (B)

D. both (A) and (B)

Ans. D

498. Failure to keep election accounts is dealt under-

A. Section 170 F of IPC

B. Section 170 G of IPC

C. Section 171 H of IPC

D. Section 171 I of IPC

Ans. D

499. Non-appearance in a case where declaration has been made under sub-section (4) of section 82 of this Code pronouncing a person as proclaimed offender is dealt under-

A. Section 171-A of IPC

B. Section 172-A of IPC

C. Section 173-A of IPC

D. Section 174-A of IPC

Ans. D

500. Refusing oath when duly require to take oath by public servant is dealt under-

A. Section 175 of IPC

B. Section 176 of IPC

C. Section 177 of IPC

D. Section 178 of IPC

Ans. D

501. Refusing to sign a statement made to a public servant when legally required to do so is dealt under-

A. Section 169 of IPC

B. Section 180 of IPC

C. Section 171 of IPC

D. Section 172 of IPC

Ans. B

502. Giving false information to a public servant in order to cause him to use his lawful power to the injury or annoyance of any person is dealt under-

A. Section 180 of IPC

B. Section 181 of IPC

C. Section 182 of IPC

D. Section 183 of IPC

Ans. D

503. Obstructing sale of property offered for sale by authority of a public servant is dealt under-

A. Section 183 of IPC

B. Section 184 of IPC

C. Section 185 of IPC

D. Section 186 of IPC

Ans. B

504. If summons or notice requires attendance in person etc., in a court of justice is dealt under-

A. Section 171 of IPC

B. Section 172 of IPC

C. Section 173 of IPC

D. Section 174 of IPC

Ans. B

505. Which of the following is not a part of Section 73, IPC?

A. a time of solitary confinement not exceeding one month shall not exceed six months

B. a time of solitary confinement not exceeding two months shall exceed six months but not one year

C. a time of solitary confinement not exceeding three months shall exceed one year

D. a time of solitary confinement not exceeding four months shall exceed one year but not 2 years

Ans. D

506. Which of the following is needed to bring an offence within the terms of Section 75, IPC?

A. it must be one under either Chapter XII or Chapter XVIII of the Code

B. the previous conviction must have been for an offence therein punishable with imprisonment for not less than three years

C. the subsequent offence must also be punishable with imprisonment for not less than three years

D. all of them

Ans. D

507. In which of the following way Section 76, IPC and Section 79, IPC differs from one another?

A. In the Section 76, IPC a person is assumed to be bound while in Section 79, IPC, the person is assumed to be justified by law

B. In the Section 76, IPC a person is assumed to be justified while in Section 79, IPC, the person is assumed to be bound by law

C. In the Section 76, IPC a person is assumed to be both bound and justified while in Section 79, IPC, the person is assumed only to be bound by law

D. None of them

Ans. A

508. Wrongful confinement for the purpose of extorting confession or information, or of compelling restoration of property, etc. is dealt under-

A. Section 346 of IPC

B. Section 347 of IPC

C. Section 348 of IPC

D. Section 349 of IPC

Ans. C

509. In case the accused is not able to establish conclusively that he was insane at the time he committed the offence, which of the following will be true to entitle the Court to acquit the accused on the ground that the general burden of proof resting on the prosecution was not discharged?

A. the evidence placed before the Court by the accused may raise a reasonable doubt in the mind of the Court as regards one or more of the ingredients of the offence including mens rea of the accused

B. the evidence placed before the Court by the prosecution may raise a reasonable doubt in the mind of the Court as regards one or more of the ingredients of the offence including mens rea of the accused

C. Either (A) or (B)

D. None of then

Ans. C

510. It was found that disclosure statement made by the deceased led to the recovery of gold ornaments worn by the deceased, weapons used in crime and blood stained clothes of accused. In which of following cases the conviction was held by the court as proper under Section 302 of IPC.?

A. Om Prakash v. State of Haryana (1979)

B. Geijaganda Somaiah v. State of Karnataka (2007)

C. Narayanan v. State of Kerala (1987)

D. Mehtab Singh v. State of U.P (1979)

Ans. B

511. Which of the following can be categorised as types of insanity?

I. Melancholia

II. Mania

III. Monomania

IV. Dementia

V. Idiocy

A. I, IV and V

B. II, and V

C. III, IV and V

D. all of them

Ans. D

512. Robbery or dacoity, with attempt to cause death or grievous hurt is dealt under-

A. Section 394 of IPC

B. Section 395 of IPC

C. Section 396 of IPC

D. Section 397 of IPC

Ans. C

513. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at the time of doing it is by reason of intoxication of, incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that he is doing what is wrong, or contrary to the law, provided the intoxication was:

A. self-administered

B. administered against his knowledge

C. administered against his will

D. both (B) and (C)

Ans. D

514. The rule volenti non fit injura is based on which of the following proposition?

A. every person is the best judge of his own interest

B. no man will consent to do what he thinks is hurtful to himself

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans. C

515. Unnatural offences is dealt under-

A. Section 375 of IPC

B. Section 376 of IPC

C. Section 377 of IPC

D. Section 378 of IPC

Ans. C

516. Which of the following case the exception in Section 89, IPC cannot be extended?

I. intentional causing of death or to the attempting to cause death

II. doing of anything which the person knows to be likely to cause death, for any purpose other than the preventing of death or grievous hurt, or the curing of any grievous disease or infirmity

III. voluntary causing of grievous hurt or to the attempting to cause grievous hurt, unless it be for the purpose of preventing of death or grievous hurt, or the curing of any grievous disease or infirmity

IV. abetment of any offence

A. I, II and IV

B. III, IV and IV

C. IV only

D. all of them

Ans. D

517. The principal object of Section 88, 89 and 92 of the IPC is:

A. protection of medical practitioners

B. protection of chemists

C. protection of pharmacists

D. all of them

Ans. A

518. Section 94, IPC is based on the principle:

A. actus reus invito (factus) non est mens actus

B. mens rea invito (factus) non est mens actus

C. actus me invito (factus) non est mens actus

D. none of them

Ans. C

519. Theft in a building, tent or vessel is dealt under-

A. Section 380 of IPC

B. Section 381 of IPC

C. Section 382 of IPC

D. Section 383 of IPC

Ans. A

520. Which of the following are the limits which dictate the right of private defence?

A. that the same right is claimed by all other members of the society

B. that it is the State which generally undertakes the responsibility for the maintenance of law and order

C. Either (A) or (B)

D. Both of them

Ans. D

521. Right to private defence cannot be used for which of the following purpose?

A. vindictive

B. aggressive

C. retributive

D. all of them

Ans. D

522. In which of the following factor is important to appropriately determine the right to private defence?

I. the injuries received by the accused

II. the immense of threat to his safety

III. the injuries caused by the accused

IV. the circumstances whether the accused had time to recourse to public authorities

A. I

B. I, II

C. I, III, IV

D. I, II, III, IV

Ans. D

523. A instigates B to instigate C to murder Z. B accordingly instigates C to murder Z, and C commits that offence in consequence of B’s instigation.

A. Only A is liable to punishment

B. Only B is liable to punishment

C. Only C is liable to punishment

D. all of them

Ans. D

524. Maiming a minor in order that such minor may be employed or used for purposes of begging is dealt under-

A. Section 362 A of IPC

B. Section 363 A of IPC

C. Section 364 A of IPC

D. Section 365 A of IPC

Ans. B

525. A instigates B to give false evidence. B in consequence of the instigation commits that offence.

A. Only B is liable to the punishment

B. A is not liable to same punishment as B

C. A is guilty of abetment and is liable to the same punishment as B

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. D

526. A instigates B to resist by force a distress made by a public servant, knowing full well that B most likely will cause hurt in the process. Hence B in consequence, resists that distress. In offering the resistance, B voluntarily causes grievous hurt to the officer executing the distress.

A. B is liable to punishment for resisting the distress only

B. B is liable to punishment for causing hurt

C. Both A and B are liable to punishment for resisting the distress

D. Both A and B are responsible for resisting the distress and causing hurt to A

Ans. D

527. A instigates B to murder Z. However the offence is not committed. If B had murdered Z, which of the following is true about this case?

A. He would be subject to death penalty or life imprisonment

B. A would have been liable to a term of seven years also to a fine

C. A would have been liable to a life term including fine

D. All of them

Ans. D

528. Intercourse by a man with his wife not being under twelve years of age is dealt under-

A. Section 375 of IPC

B. Section 376 of IPC

C. Section 377 of IPC

D. Section 378 of IPC

Ans. B

529. Consider the two cases:

I. A, a police officer, whose duty is to prevent robbery, abets the commission of robbery. However the robbery is not committed.

II. A, abets the commission of a robbery by B, a police officer, who duty is to prevent the offence. However the robbery is not committed.

Which of the following is true about the above cases?

A. Only B is liable to one-half of the longest term of imprisonment

B. A is liable to one-half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence of robbery and also to fine

C. A is liable to a fine only

D. None of them

Ans. B

530. Theft after preparation having been made for causing death, or hurt or restraint or fear of death, or of hurt or of restraint, in order to the committing of such theft, or to retiring after committing it, or to retaining property taken by it is dealt under-

A. Section 380 of IPC

B. Section 381 of IPC

C. Section 382 of IPC

D. Section 383 of IPC

Ans. C

531. A, knowing that dacoity is about to be committed at B, falsely informs the Magistrate that a dacoity is about to be committed at C, a place in an opposite direction and thereby misleads the Magistrate with intent to facilitate the commission of the offence.

A. A should be punished under Section 115, IPC

B. A should be punished under Section 116, IPC

C. A should be punished under Section 117, IPC

D. A should be punished under Section 118, IPC

Ans. D

532. A being legally bound to appear before the High Court at Calcutta, in obedience to a subpoena issuing from that Court intentionally omits to appear.

A. A has committed an offence under Section 174, IPC

B. A has committed an offence under Section 175, IPC

C. A has committed an offence under Section 176, IPC

D. A has committed an offence under Section 177, IPC

Ans. A

533. Procreation of minor girl is dealt under-

A. Section 364 A of IPC

B. Section 365 A of IPC

C. Section 366 A of IPC

D. Section 367 A of IPC

Ans. C

534. Intentional omission to give information of an offence by a person legally bound to inform is dealt under-

A. Section 202 of IPC

B. Section 203 of IPC

C. Section 204 of IPC

D. Section 205 of IPC

Ans. A

535. An order is promulgated by a public servant lawfully empowered to promulgate such order, directing that a religious procession shall not pass down a certain street. A knowingly disobeys the order, and thereby causes danger of riot.

A. A has committed the offence under Section 150, IPC

B. A has committed the offence under Section 160, IPC

C. A has committed the offence under Section 178, IPC

D. A has committed the offence under Section 188, IPC

Ans. D

536. A, being bound by an oath to state the truth, states that he believes a certain signature to be the handwriting of Z, when he does not believe it to be the handwriting of Z. Here if A gives evidence against Z then:

A. A’s evidence is true

B. A’s evidence is false

C. Z’s evidence is false

D. None of them

Ans. B

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